1.What is the minimum age for a candidate to be elected as President of India?

[A] 20 years
[B] 25 years
[C] 30 years
[D] 35 years

 

Correct Answer: D [35 years]

Notes:
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as President of India- 35 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as Vice President of India- 35 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLA- 25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Lok Sabha-25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Rajya Sabha-30 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLC- 30 years

2.Which among the following language is NOT there in the 8th Schedule of Constitution of India?

[A] Dogri
[B] Rajasthani
[C] Sindhi
[D] Manipuri

 

Correct Answer: B [Rajasthani]

Notes:
The 22 languages in Eighth schedule are: 1. Assamese 2. Bengali 3. Bodo 4. Dogri 5. Gujarati 6. Hindi 7. Kannada 8. Kashmiri 9. Konkani 10. Maithili 11. Malayalam 12. Manipuri 13. Marathi 14. Nepali 15. Odia 16. Punjabi 17. Sanskrit 18. Santali 19. Sindhi 20. Tamil 21. Telugu 22. Urdu

3.Who is the chief executive head of the state?

[A] Chief minister
[B] Governor
[C] President
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: B [Governor]

Notes:
The provisions related to state executive are in articles 153 to 167. The state executive is made of Governor, Chief Minister, Council of Ministers and Advocate General. The executive authority of a state is vested in the Governor; and Governor is the constitutional head of the state in the same way as President is the Constitutional head of the Union.

4.The territories of Goa, Daman & Diu were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by which amendment bill?

[A] Tenth Amendment 1961
[B] Twelfth Amendment 1962
[C] Fourteenth Amendment 1962
[D] Fifteenth Amendment 1963

 

Correct Answer: B [Twelfth Amendment 1962]

Notes:
Twelfth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962 incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu in the Indian Union.

5.At the time of commencement of Indian constitution, the all states of Union of India were put in four parts A, B, C, D, later reorganized and reduced to 2 categories ‘states and union territories’ in 1956. Which of the following was only one member of D?

[A] Vindhya Pradesh
[B] Bombay
[C] Madras
[D] Andaman & Nicobar Islands

 

Correct Answer: D [Andaman & Nicobar Islands]

Notes:
The constitution of 1950 had provided for three main types of states and a class of territories:
Part A states, which were the former governors’ provinces of British India, were ruled by a governor appointed by the president and an elected state legislature. The nine Part A states were Assam, Bihar, Bombay, Madhya Pradesh (formerly Central Provinces and Berar), Madras, Orissa, Punjab (formerly East Punjab), Uttar Pradesh (formerly the United Provinces), and West Bengal.
Part B states, which were former princely states or groups of princely states, governed by a rajpramukh, who was usually the ruler of a constituent state, and an elected legislature. The rajpramukh was appointed by the President of India. The eight Part B states were Hyderabad, Jammu and Kashmir, Madhya Bharat, Mysore, Patiala and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU), Rajasthan, Saurashtra, and Travancore-Cochin.
Part C states included both the former chief commissioners’ provinces and some princely states, and each was governed by a chief commissioner appointed by the President of India. The ten Part C states were Ajmer, Bhopal, Bilaspur, Coorg, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Cutch, Manipur, Tripura, and Vindhya Pradesh.
The sole Part D territory was the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which were administered by a lieutenant governor appointed by the central government.

6.The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council was abolished in 1985. In which year it was revived back ?

[A] 2004
[B] 2005
[C] 2006
[D] 2007

 

Correct Answer: D [2007]

Notes:
Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council had existed between 1958 to 1985, and from 2007 till date. The Andhra Pradesh government had passed a resolution for dissolving the council and is waiting for parliamentary approval.

7.How many times the word “Secular” appears in our constitution?

[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4

 

Correct Answer: B [2]

Notes:
The term “secular” appears twice in Indian Constitution, first in Preamble and then in Article 25 (a).

8.The provision for establishment of Supreme Court of Calcutta was made in which act?

[A] Regulating Act of 1773
[B] Indian Council Act, 1861
[C] Charter Act of 1813
[D] Pitt’s India Act, 1784

 

Correct Answer: A [ Regulating Act of 1773 ]

Notes:
The Regulating Act of 1773 provided for the establishment of Supreme Court at Fort William Calcutta. It comprised of one Chief Justice and three other judges. Sir Elijah Impey was the first Chief Justice of this Supreme Court.

9.Who was the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s executive council?

[A] G.K. Gokhale
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Satyendra Prasad Sinha
[D] Ambika Charan Majumdar

 

Correct Answer: C [ Satyendra Prasad Sinha ]

Notes:
The Indian Councils Act 1909 provided for the first time the association of Indians with the executive councils of Viceroys and Governors. Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s executive council. He was appointed as a law member.

10.Which of the following acts introduced the principle of constitutional autocracy?

[A] Indian Councils Act, 1891
[B] Government of India Act, 1919
[C] Government of India act, 1935
[D] Independence of India Act, 1947

 

Correct Answer: C [ Government of India act, 1935 ]

Notes:
Constitutional autocracy introduced by Government of India Act, 1935 vested the executive authority of provinces in the Governors and of center, in the Governor-General on the behalf of the Crown.

11.Who advises the president with regard to the appointment of important officials like Attorney General of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

[A] The Council of Ministers
[B] The Prime Minister
[C] The Chief Justice of India
[D] The Union Home Minister

 

Correct Answer: B [The Prime Minister]

Notes:
It is the Prime Minister who advises the president regarding the appointment of important officials like attorney general of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, chairman and members of the UPSC, election commissioners, chairman and members of the finance commission and so on.

12.Which Article deals with the duties of the Prime Minister of India?

[A] Article 77
[B] Article 78
[C] Article 79
[D] Article 80

 

Correct Answer: B [Article 78]

Notes:
Article 78 of the Constitution of India says that it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.

13.Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding election to Lok Sabha?

[A] The electoral rolls are prepared under the direction and control of President
[B] The elections are on the basis of adult suffrage

[C] On the request of Election Commission the President is required to make available such staff as me be necessary for discharge of functions
[D] The Election Commission conducts the election

 

Correct Answer: A [The electoral rolls are prepared under the direction and control of President]

Notes:
According to Article 326 the elections are held on the basis of adult suffrage.  Article 324 deals with superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in the Election Commission. And electoral rolls are prepared under the direction of Election Commission not President.

14.Which of the following are ways to terminate the sitting of the House of People?

[A] Prorogation
[B] Adjournment
[C] Dissolution
[D] All of the above

 

Correct Answer: D [All of the above]

Notes:
All of the above methods Prorogation, Adjournment and Dissolution can be used to terminate the sitting of the House of People. Dissolution is done by the President under Article 85(2) of the Constitution of India.

15.When can the Speaker use his power of casting vote?

[A] In case of a Constitutional Amendment
[B] In case of Emergency
[C] To save the existing government
[D] In case of a tie when votes are equally divided

 

Correct Answer: D [In case of a tie when votes are equally divided]

Notes:
The Article 100(1) provides  a procedure for voting in the house. Any question in deliberation should be decided by a majority of votes of the members present and voting. In case of a tie the Speaker exercises a ‘casting vote’.

16.Which Amendment empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and economically backward classes?

[A] 1st Amendment Act, 1951
[B] 6th Amendment Act, 1956
[C] 9th Amendment Act, 1960
[D] 14th Amendment Act, 1962

 

Correct Answer: A [1st Amendment Act, 1951]

Notes:

The First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951 empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and economically backward classes. It also added three more grounds of restrictions on freedom of speech and expression, viz., public order, friendly relations with foreign states and incitement to an offence.

17.Which Constitutional Amendment extended the reservation of seats for the SCs and STs, and special representation for the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies for a further period of ten years?

[A] 22nd Amendment Act, 1969
[B] 23rd Amendment Act, 1969
[C] 24th Amendment Act, 1971
[D] 25th Amendment Act, 1971

 

Correct Answer: B [23rd Amendment Act, 1969]

Notes:
The 23rd Amendment act of 1969 extended the reservation of seats for the SCs and STs, and special representation for the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies for the further period of ten years.

18.Which amendment bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate bodies?

[A] 89th Amendment Act, 2003
[B] 91st Amendment Act, 2003
[C] 96th Amendment Act, 2011
[D] 99th Amendment Act, 2014

 

Correct Answer: A [89th Amendment Act, 2003 ]

Notes:

Eighty-Ninth Amendment Act, 2003 bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate bodies, i.e., the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Article 338-A).

19.Which committee examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

[A] Committee on Public Undertakings
[B] Estimates Committee
[C] House Committee
[D] Public Accounts Committee

 

Correct Answer: D [Public Accounts Committee]

Notes:
It is the  Public Accounts Committee which examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President. The CAG has to submit three audit reports to the President of India, which are: audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public undertakings.

20.Who appoints the chairman and members of the Joint State Public Service Commission?

[A] The President
[B] The Governor
[C] The Prime Minister
[D] The Chief Justice of India

 

Correct Answer: A [The President ]

Notes:
Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states on the request of the state legislatures concerned can be established by Parliament. The chairman and members of the JSPSC are appointed by the President.

21.What was the original strength of Supreme Court of India?

[A] 8
[B] 12
[C] 15
[D] 20

 

Correct Answer: A [8]

Notes:
The original strength of the Supreme Court of India was fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other judges). The Parliament increased this number of other judges progressively to ten in 1956, to thirteen in 1960, to seventeen in 1977, to twenty-five in 1986, to thirty in 2008 and to thirty-three in 2019.

22.Which of the following statements are correct with respect to inter-state council?
1. Its decisions are binding
2. The Council may meet at least thrice in a year
3. Decisions are taken by majority votes
Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 2
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: C [Only 2]

Notes:
The Inter-State Council is a recommendatory body. It deliberates on issues relating to interstate, Centre-state and Centre-union territories relations. The Council expected to meet at least thrice in a year. All questions are decided by consensus.

23.What is the maximum time period for which President’s Rule can be extended?

[A] One year
[B] Two years
[C] Three years
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: C [Three years]

Notes:
If a proclamation of President’s Rule is approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months. It can be extended for a maximum period of three years with repeated Parliamentary approval every six months.

24.What is the meaning of Judicial Enthusiasm?

[A] Judges like to maintain restraint
[B] Judges like to participate in the social reforms
[C] Judges like to follow judicial precedent
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: B [Judges like to participate in the social reforms]

Notes:
Judicial Enthusiasm means that the judges take active interest in social reforms that are a need of the changing times. It has the effect of encouraging the Public Interest Litigation and liberalisation of the principle of “Locus Standi”.

25.Who all are the part of the state executive?

[A] Governor
[B] Chief Minister
[C] Advocate General
[D] All of the above

 

Correct Answer: D [All of the above]

Notes:
The governor, the chief minister, the council of ministers and the advocate general of the state are all part of the state executive. Article 153 to 167 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the state executive.

26.What is the term of Chief Minister of a state?

[A] 3 years
[B] 5 years
[C] 6 years
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: D [None of the above]

Notes:
The term of the Chief Minister of a state is not fixed by the Constitution of India and he holds office during the pleasure of the governor. However, this does not mean that the governor can remove him at any time.

27.What is the maximum age until a judge of High Court can hold office?

[A] 60
[B] 62
[C] 65
[D] 70

 

Correct Answer: B [62]

Notes:
A judge of High Court holds office until he attains the age of 62 years. Any questions regarding the age of a judge of High Court is to be decided by the president of India after consultation with the chief justice of India and the decision of the president is final.

28.The Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs under which Article?

[A] Article 32
[B] Article 76
[C] Article 144
[D] Article 226

 

Correct Answer: D [Article 226]

Notes:
The Article 226 of the Constitution of India empowers a high court to issue writs such as habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose.

29.In which year Supreme Court ruled that the tribunals are subject to the writ jurisdiction of the high courts?

[A] 1996
[B] 1997
[C] 1998
[D] 1999

 

Correct Answer: B [1997]

Notes:
In the year 1997, the Supreme Court of India ruled that the tribunals are subject to the writ jurisdiction of the high courts. Therefore, it is not possible for an aggrieved person to approach the Supreme Court directly against the decisions of the tribunals, without going to the high courts first.

30.Who constitutes the finance commission to review the financial position of the panchayats?

[A] President
[B] Governor
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Chief Minister

 

Correct Answer: B [Governor]

Notes:
The governor of a state is empowered to constitute a finance commission to review the financial position of the panchayats in the state after every five years. It suggests the measures needed to improve the financial position of the panchayats.

31.The pecuniary jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok Adalat shall be up to rupees?

[A] 10 lakh
[B] 20 lakh
[C] 25 lakh
[D] 30 lakh

 

Correct Answer: A [10 lakh]

Notes:
The pecuniary jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok Adalat in a district shall be up to rupees ten lakhs. However, the Central Government is empowered to increase the said pecuniary jurisdiction from time to time.

32.The Article 371-D contains special provisions with regard to which of the following states?

[A] Manipur
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Tripura
[D] Maharashtra

 

Correct Answer: B [Andhra Pradesh]

Notes:
The Article 371-D contains special provisions with regard to the state of Andhra Pradesh. The President of India is empowered to provide for equal opportunities and facilities for the people belonging to different parts of the state in the matter of public employment and education. Different provisions can be made for various parts of the state.

33.Who recommends the devolution of funds to the urban local bodies?

[A] Governor
[B] Finance Commission
[C] State Finance Commission
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: C [State Finance Commission]

Notes:
Devolution, which is the transfer of funds from the state government to the urban local bodies, is made on the basis of the recommendations of the state finance commission.

34.Who administers the Union Territory?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] President
[C] Governor
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: B [President]

Notes:
President administers the union territory through an administrator appointed by him. The administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and not a head of the state.

35.Which of the following UTs have been created for their strategic importance?

[A] Andaman and Nicobar Islands
[B] Lakshadweep
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them

 

Correct Answer: C [Both of them]

Notes:
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and Lakshadweep have been created as UTs for their strategic importance.

36.In which year was  the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India established?

[A] 1996
[B] 1997
[C] 1998
[D] 1999

 

Correct Answer: B [1997]

Notes:
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India established in the year 1997. It’s purpose is to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government.

37.Who appoints the members of Finance Commission?

[A] Parliament
[B] President
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Supreme Court

 

Correct Answer: B [President]

Notes:
The Finance Commission of India consists of a chairman and four other members who are  appointed by the president of India. The members hold office for such period as specified by the president in his order.

38.In which year the Election Commission made the earliest attempt to regulate opinion polls?

[A] 1998
[B] 2000
[C] 2002
[D] 2005

 

Correct Answer: A [1998]

Notes:
The earliest attempt to regulate opinion polls was made in 1998. The ECI took an overall view of the situation and issued an order laying down “Guidelines for Publication and Dissemination of Results of Opinion Polls/Exit Polls”.

39.Which of the following statements are correct with respect to National Human Rights Commission?
1. It is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure.
2. It has all the powers of a civil court.
3. It has all the powers of a criminal court.
Select the correct option from codes given below:

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3

 

Correct Answer: B [Only 1 & 2]

Notes:
The National Human Rights Commission is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. It has all the powers of a civil court. But it does not posses the powers of a criminal court.

40.In which year Central Information Commission was established?

[A] 2000
[B] 2002
[C] 2005
[D] 2007

 

Correct Answer: C [2005]

Notes:
The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in India in the year 2005. It was constituted through an
Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act of 2005.

41.In which year the SC overturned the previous judgment by Delhi High Court (2009) that decriminalised homosexual acts and criminalised homosexuality once again?

[A] 2012
[B] 2013
[C] 2014
[D] 2015

 

Correct Answer: B [2013]

Notes:
In the year 2013  the Supreme Court in Suresh Kumar Koushal Case  overturned the previous judgment by Delhi High Court (2009) that decriminalised homosexual acts and criminalised homosexuality once again.

42.Consumer Protection Act, 2019 has replaced which of the following?

[A] Consumer Protection Act, 1976
[B] Consumer Protection Act, 1986
[C] Consumer Protection Act, 1996
[D] Consumer Protection Act, 2006

 

Correct Answer: B [Consumer Protection Act, 1986]

Notes:
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 has replaced Consumer Protection Act, 1986. The Indian government has implemented different acts from time to time to protect the consumers against different forms of mistreatment.

43.An area declared “disturbed” according to the Disturbed Areas (Special Courts) Act, 1976  has to maintain status quo for how many months?

[A] 2 months
[B] 3 months
[C] 4 months
[D] 6 months

 

Correct Answer: B [3 months]

Notes:
According to the Disturbed Areas (Special Courts) Act of the year 1976 once  an area is declared ‘disturbed’, the area has to maintain status quo for a minimum of 3 months.

44.The Industrial Disputes Act was passed in which year?

[A] 1946
[B] 1947
[C] 1948
[D] 1949

 

Correct Answer: B [1947]

Notes:
The Industrial Disputes Act was passed in 1947. It extends to the whole of India and regulates Indian labour laws. It was enacted on 11th March 1947 and came into force 1 April 1947.

45.The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act makes crèche facility mandatory for every establishment employing how more than how many workers?

[A] 30
[B] 40
[C] 50
[D] 60

 

Correct Answer: C [50]

Notes:
The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act which was enacted in 2017 makes crèche facility mandatory for every establishment which employs 50 or more employees. Women employees are permitted to visit the crèche 4 times during the day including rest intervals.

46.The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act was passed in which year?

[A] 1984
[B] 1986
[C] 1988
[D] 1990

 

Correct Answer: B [1986]

Notes:

The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act was passed in the year 1986 by the Parliament of India. It was enacted to prohibit indecent representation of women in advertisements or in publications, writings, paintings, figures etc.

47.Assam Accord was signed in which year between the All Assam Students Union (AASU), the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad and the then Central Government led by Rajiv Gandhi to bring stability in the state?

[A] 1985
[B] 1990
[C] 1995
[D] 2000

 

Correct Answer: A [1985]

Notes:
Assam Accord was signed in the year 1985. It was signed between the All Assam Students Union (AASU), the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad and the then Central Government led by Rajiv Gandhi to bring stability in the state.

48.How many digits are there in the GSTIN (Goods and Services Tax Identification) number?

[A] 12
[B] 13
[C] 15
[D] 18

 

Correct Answer: C [15]

Notes:
Goods and Services Tax Identification (GSTIN) number consists of 15 digits.

49.Who among the following is the chairperson of the GST council?

[A] Prime Minister of India
[B] Union Finance Minister
[C] Finance Secretary of India
[D] Comproller and Auditor General of India

 

Correct Answer: B [Union Finance Minister]

Notes:
The GST council is chaired by Union Finance Minister. It consists of a total number of 33 members.

50.Which is the first Indian scheduled commercial bank to issue public Formosa USD bonds?

[A] Punjab National Bank
[B] State Bank of India
[C] Canara Bank
[D] HDFC Bank

 

Correct Answer: B [State Bank of India]

Notes:
State Bank of India (SBI) has raised $300 million through “Regulation S” Formosa Bonds for five years. It is the first Indian scheduled commercial bank to issue public Formosa Bonds.
The bonds have been benchmarked against five-year US Treasury notes and the lender has completed its issuance through its London branch.