1. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes India as a Union of states?
B. Article 1
C. Article 3
D. Article 2
Ans: B
2. According to which of the following Amendment Acts Article 1 of the Indian Constitution was amended?
A. 5th Amendment Act
B. 6th Amendment Act
C. 7th Amendment Act
D. 3rd Amendment Act
Ans: C
3. Which of the following may by law admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit?
A. President
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Parliament
D. Reorganisation Act
Ans: C
4. Foreign territories which, on acquisition, would become part of the territory of India under Article 1 (3) C of the Indian Constitution can by law be admitted into the Union under Article ________.
A. 1(3)
B. 2
C. 3
D. 2(1)
Ans: B
5. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides the provision of formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states?
A. Article 1
B. Article 1(3)
C. Article 2A
D. Article 3
Ans: D
6. Which of the following sub clauses of Article 3 of the Indian Constitution is restricted to inter-state adjustments and does not apply to cession of territory in favour of a foreign state?
A. Clause B
B. Clause C
C. Clause A
D. Clause A, C
Ans: B
7. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with “laws made under Articles 2 and 3 to provide for the amendment of the First and the Fourth Schedules and supplemental, incidental and consequential matters”?
A. Article 4
B. Article 5
C. Article 4(1)
D. Article 3(1)
Ans: A
8. The expression ‘representation in Parliament’ is used in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 4
B. Article 4 (1)
C. Article 4 (2)
D. Article 4 (1) (2)
Ans: A
9. Which of the following is mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
A. 26th January 1949
B. 26th November 1949
C. 26th January 1950
D. 22nd August 1947
Ans: B
10. Which of the following words enables the Court to uphold the constitutionality of laws of nationalisation of private property?
A. Sovereign
B. Secular
C. Republic
D. Socialist
Ans: D
11. Which of the following cases upheld ‘Secularism’ as a basic feature of the Indian Constitution even before the word ‘Secular’ was inserted in the Preamble?
A. Indira Gandhi v. Rajnarain
B. Kesavnanda Bharti v. State of Kerala
C. Waman Rao v. Union of India
D. Samatha v. State of A.P
Ans: B
12. Which of the following is/are the correct explanation of Parliamentary Democracy?
A. Representation of the people
B. Responsible Government
C. Accountability of the council of ministers to the legislature
D. All are correct
Ans: D
13. Which of the following words emphasize the republican and democratic character of the Indian Polity?
A. President
B. House of People
C. We the people of India
D. Parliament
Ans: C
14. The category of ‘territory in Part D’ was replaced by which of the following?
A. States
B. Union territories
C. Union of States
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: B
15. Which of the following states in India has its own state Constitution?
A. Kerala
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Orissa
Ans: B
16. Which of the following is to be associated with the Union by the Constitution (36th Amendment) Act, 1975?
A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Nagaland
C. Sikkim
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: C
17. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes a person as Indian citizen who is born as well as domiciled in the ‘territory of India’ irrespective of the nationality of his parents?
A. Article 5
B. Article 5 A
C. Article 5 C
D. Article 5 A, B
Ans: B
18. “A person who has migrated to the territory of India from the territory now included in Pakistan shall be deemed to be a citizen of India at the commencement of this Constitution if he or either of his parents or any of his grandparents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935.” In which of the Articles of the Indian Constitution this provision has been given?
A. Article 6
B. Article 5
C. Article 6A
D. Article 5B
Ans: A
19. The ‘migration’ referred to in Article 7 of the Indian Constitution refers to migration between 1-3-1947 and ________ does not extend to migration after that date, which will be governed by the Citizenship Act, 19
A. 26th January, 1950
B. 15th August, 1947
C. 26th November, 1949
D. 22nd July, 1947
Ans: A
20. ‘Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens’ is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 8
B. Article 9
C. Article 7A
D. Article 6
Ans: B
21. If an Indian had voluntarily migrate to a foreign state after 26-1-1950, he will lose his Indian citizenship under the provisions of the________?
A. Preamble
B. Article 5 and 7
C. Citizenship Act
D. Article 9(2)
Ans: C
22. The power to enact a law relating to citizenship of India is left to________ under the provisions of Article 11 of the Indian Constitution.
A. President
B. Council of ministers
C. House of People
D. Parliament
Ans: D
23. Which of the following Part of the Indian Constitution is associated with Citizenship?
A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV
Ans: B
24. Access to justice is a_______________?
A. Human Right
B. Civil Right
C. Legal Right
D. Constitutional Rights
Ans: A
25. According to the definition given in Part III, “the state” includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the states and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. In which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is this definition given?
A. Article 11
B. Article 12
C. Article 13
D. Article 13(1)
Ans: B
26. Which of the following means ‘Laws in Force’?
A. Laws made by President
B. Laws passed or made by a legislature or other competent authority
C. Laws made by President
D. Laws passed or made by a legislature or other competent authority
Ans: B
27. A law may be unconstitutional on which of the following grounds?
A. Contravention of any fundamental right, specified in Part III of the constitution
B. Contravention of any of the mandatory provisions of the constitution which impose limitations upon the powers of a legislature
C. Legislating on a subject which is not assigned to the relevant legislature by the distribution of powers made by the 7th schedule
D. All of them
Ans: D
28. Who, among the following, decides the question whether a fundamental right can be waived?
A. Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court
B. President
C. Bench of Judges of the High Court
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans: A
29. Right to equality is mentioned in which of the following Articles of Indian constitution?
B. Article 14 (1)
C. Article 13 (3) (1)
D. Article 15
Ans: A
30. Which of the following is/are considered to be the limitations of the doctrine of equal protection?
I. The principle of equality does not take away from the state the power of classifying persons for legitimate purposes.
II. Every classification is in some degree likely to produce some inequality and mere production of inequality is not enough.
III. If a law deals equally with members of a well-defined class, it is not obnoxious and it is not open to the charge of denial of equal protection on the ground that it is not applicable to other persons.
A. Only I
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and III
Ans: C
31. In a legislation for the provision of employee’s provident fund, it is not an unreasonable classification to exempt:
A. Co-operative establishment
B. Establishments having been in existence for a period of less than 3 years
C. Establishments where the employees are already enjoying benefits not less favourable than those provided by the Act
D. All of them
Ans: D
32. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution stand(s) for equality and rule of law clearly forms part of the basic structure of the Constitution and cannot be abrogated?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. All of them
Ans: D
33. Which of the following Amendment Acts provides that even during emergencies, the enforcement of the rights under Articles 20 and 21 of the Indian Constitution cannot be suspended?
A. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
B. 44th Amendment Act, 1978
C. 61st Amendment Act, 1988
D. 34th Amendment Act, 1966
Ans: B
34. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Article 15 of the Indian Constitution is an instance of the right to equality which is generally stated in Article 14.
II. While Article 14 is available to all persons, Article 15 is available to citizens only.
A. Both are correct
B. Both are incorrect
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans: A
35. In the absence of a definition of the expression in the Constitution, the determination of which classes are ‘backward’ is left to the___________ as defined in Article 12 of the Indian Constitution.
A. President
B. State
C. Prime Minister
D. Parliament
Ans: B
36. Scheduled Castes and Tribes constitute a protected class, apart from any condition of backwardness, as specified in Article 15(4). The Government is entitled to do everything for the upliftment of members of these castes and tribes which include(s):
A. Reservations for their admission to educational institutions
B. Lowering the minimum qualifying marks for jobs
C. Two avenues for promotion in place of one for the rest of the people
D. All of them
Ans: D
37. Under Article 15(2) of the Indian Constitution no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to
II. The use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of state funds or dedicated to the use of general public.
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans: B
38. Which of the above statements is/are found to be incorrect?
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans: B
39. Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution does not prohibit discrimination on the ground of______________, hence it is constitutionally permissible for a state to prescribe that residents of the state would be entitled to a concession in the matter of fees in a State Medical College or to prescribe that admission to a university shall be restricted to persons resident in a particular area in the state.
A. Religion
B. Residence
C. Caste
D. Sex
Ans: B
40. In which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Scheduled Castes and Tribes are mentioned together with the ‘Backward Classes’?
A. Article 15
B. Article 15(1)
C. Article 15(4)
D. Article 15(2)
Ans: C
41. Which of the following statements regarding Article 16 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be incorrect?
I. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the state.
II. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the state.
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans: B
42. The State, in terms of Article 16 of the Indian Constitution, may make which type(s) of following reservations?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
43. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution for Horizontal Reservation?
A. Clause (1) of Article 16
B. Clause (2) of Article 16
C. Clause (4) of Article 16
D. None of them
Ans: A
44. Which of the following attributes of services is/are included in the term “Appointment”?
A. Tenure
B. Duration
C. Emoluments
D. All of them
Ans: D
45. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The right guaranteed by Article 16(1) of the Indian Constitution cannot be treated as a right to private property under Article 300 A.
II. Where the methods or sources of recruitment are different, this Article would debar the Government from prescribing different pay scales for eh two classes of employees, though holding the same post.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Neither I nor II
D. Both I and II
Ans: A
46. Seniority is not a fundamental right but is merely a _____ right
A. Economic
B. Civil
C. Legal
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: B
47. Which of the following cases upheld that the description of the appointment to a selection post as ‘promotion’ in the Government letter does not preclude the Government from making the appointment on the basis of merit, regardless of seniority?
A. Venkata v. State of A.P
B. Union of India v. N.Y. Apte
C. Dr. Jai Narayan Mishra v. State of Bihar
D. Union of India v. B.S. Agarwal
Ans: C
48. The object of reservation is to provide ___________________ equality to the disadvantaged.
A. Social
B. Economic
C. Legal
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
49. The rule which states that a reserved category candidate promoted on the basis of reservation earlier than his senior general category candidates in the feeder grade, shall necessarily be junior in the promoted category to such general category candidates, is known as:
A. Catch up
B. Rider
C. High up
D. Seniority up
Ans: A
50. Which of the following clauses of Article 16 of the Indian Constitution says that Unfilled reserved Vacancies may be considered as a separate class?
A. Clause 4
B. Clause 4A
C. Clause 4B
D. Clause 4(1) A
Ans: C
51. As per President’s Emoluments and Pension (Amendment) Act, 2008 (28 of 2008) the present salary of President of India per month:
A. Rs. 1,00,000
B. Rs. 1,50,000
C. Rs. 1,55,000
D. Rs. 1,65,000.
Ans: B
52. Before the Amendment of the President’s Emoluments and Pension Act, 1951, in December 2008 the President after his retirement received pension of Rs. 3,00,000 per annum. Now his monthly pension is fixed:
A. 40% of his monthly emoluments
B. 50% of his monthly emoluments
C. 60% of his monthly emoluments
D. 70% of his monthly emoluments.
Ans: B
53. After the new provision made by the Vice- President Pension (Amendment) Act in December 2008 the pension of Vice-President of India is fixed:
A. 50% of his monthly salary rather than Rs. 20,000 per month
B. 45% of his monthly salary rather than Rs. 20,000 per month
C. 40% of his monthly salary rather than Rs. 20,000 per month
D. 35% of his monthly salary rather than Rs. 20,000 per month.
Ans: A
54. The Constitution 96th Amendment Act, 2011 altered the language of Oriya in 8th Schedule as:
A. Oriyan
B. Orea
C. Orriya
D. Odia.
Ans: D
55. For the first time, the system of appeals from India to Privy Council in England was introduced by the Charter of:
A. 1608
B. 1683
C. 1726
D. 1833.
Ans: C
56. Under which plan separation between revenue and judicial function was maintained:
A. Plan of 1772
B. Plan of 1774
C. Plan of 1780
D. Plan of 1782.
Ans: C
57. In Raja Nand Kumar trial, Nand Kumar was charged for the crime of forgery and was hanged in the year 1775. He was sentenced to death, under the Act of:
A. 1726
B. 1724
C. 1728
D. 1753.
Ans: C
58. The Regulating Act empowered the British Crown to establish a Supreme Court at Calcutta by issuing a charter in 1774. It also led:
A. the abolition of Mayor’s court at Calcutta
B. civil, criminal, admiralty, ecclesiastical jurisdiction on the Supreme Court
C. both (a) and (b)
D. to establish court of record.
Ans: C
59. The sovereignty of the crown was declared over the company’s territorial acquisition of India. It was done by the charter of:
A. 1753
B. 1774
C. 1813
D. 1833.
Ans: C
60. What is the meaning of ‘lex loci’:
A. law of land
B. sovereignty is essential for enacting laws
C. law of the land is supreme
D. Crown has supreme authority.
Ans: A
61. Lord Cornwallis introduced the ‘Cornwallis Code’ in 1793. What are true effects of this Code:
A. the collector was to collect the Revenue only
B. the magesterial powers of the collection of revenue were taken away
C. the court fees were abolished
D. all of the above.
Ans: D
62. The Plan of 1772 under the territories of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa were divided in districts and in each district a collector was appointed. Such plan was drafted under the Chairmanship of:
A. Lord Clive
B. Lord Cornwallis
C. Warren Hastings
D. Lord William Bentick.
Ans: C
63. The Charter of 1753 was introduced to reform some of the provisions of the Charter of 1726. One of the important provisions was:
A. establishment of the Court of Admiralty
B. establishment of the Court of Revenue
C. establishment of the Mayor’s Court
D. none of the above.
Ans: B
64. The transfer of the company’s Government to the British Crown was proclaimed by Queen Victoria just after ‘Sepoy Mutiny’. It was declared on:
A. 1 October, 1857
B. 1 October, 1858
C. 1 October, 1859
D. 1 December, 1859.
Ans: B
65. One of the following was not the main objective of the Indian Councils Act, 1909:
A. increase the size of the legislative Council
B. enlarge the functions of the legislative Councils
C. secure the support of the moderate section in the Indian National Congress
D. decrease in the proportion of the elected members.
Ans: D
66. The Simon Commission placed the recommendation regarding dyarchy which had to be abolished in the Provinces and also proposed enlargement of the Provincial Legislature. It was appointed in the year:
A. 1927
B. 1929
C. 1928
D. 1931.
Ans: A
67. Which one of the following Act made the Central Legislature a bicameral i.e., the Council of States and the Legislative Assembly:
A. Government of India Act, 1909
B. Government of India Act, 1919
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. none of the above.
Ans: B
68. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Federal Court had:
B. appellate jurisdiction only
C. original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions
D. advisory jurisdiction only.
Ans: C
69. Quit India Revolution was declared by the Indian National Congress after the failure of the:
A. Cripps Mission
B. August offer
C. Wavell Plan
D. none of the above.
Ans: A
70. One of the following statements was not among the Simon Commission’s recommendations:
A. diarchy to be abolished in the provinces
B. reconstitution of the Central Legislature
C. establishment of the Provincial Public Service Commission for all Provinces
D Indian Council is not needed to advice the Secretary of State for India.
Ans: D
71. By the Government of India Act, 1919, dyarchy was introduced in the provinces and the federal subjects were divided into two pairs: Reserved and Transferred. Reserved subjects included:
A. ecclesiastical affairs, public accounts, defence and tribal affairs
B. external affairs, ecclesiastical affairs, defence and tribal affairs
C. external affairs, public accounts, defence and tribal affairs
D. ecclesiastical affair, public accounts, defence and external affairs.
Ans: B
72. Quit India movement was declared by the Indian National Congress in Bombay Session of AICC on:
A. August 8, 1942
B. August 9, 1945
C. July 18, 1947
D. none of the above.
Ans: A
73. The Plan of Lord Mountbatten was accepted by the Congress and the Muslim League. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence Act, 1947. It got Royal Assent on:
A. 3 June, 1947
B. 4 July, 1947
C. 15 July, 1947
D. 18 July, 1947.
Ans: D
74. The Cabinet Mission (1946) did not propose that:
A. the Union Constitution be jointly settled by the entire Constituent Assembly including representatives of the States
B. there were to be three groups – Hindu majority provinces, Muslim majority provinces, Bengal and Assam
C. the Union of India would comprise British India and the States
D. the provinces could not opt out of their respective groups.
Ans: D
75. Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral:
A. Indian Councils Act, 1909
B. Government of India Act, 1919
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Ans: B
76. The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration was made by:
A. Indian Councils Act, 1900
B. Indian Councils Act, 1909
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Indian Councils Act, 1919.
Ans: B
77. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the:
A. British Parliament
B. Federal Legislature
C. State Legislature
D. Governor-General.
Ans: D
78. Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India Act, 1935:
A. Provincial autonomy
B. Dyarchy of centre and the provinces
C. Bicameral legislature
D. All India federation.
Ans: B
79. The first Session of the Constituent Assembly was held on:
A. 9 Dec., 1946
B. 26 Nov., 1949
C. 15 Aug., 1947
D. 26 Jan., 1946
Ans: A
80. Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India:
A. Indian Council Act, 1909
B. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919
C. Charter Act, 1831
D. Government of India Act, 1935.
Ans: (d)
81. What was the main stipulation of Government of India Act, 1935:
A. a federation was suggested
B. unitary form of government was recommended
C. complete independence was guaranteed
D. dyarchy was made applicable at provincial level.
Ans: C
82. The scheme of Morley-Minto constitutional reforms were given effect:
A. in 1922
B. through Indian Council Act, 1909
C. through Indian Council Act, 1919
D. through Simon Commission report.
Ans: B
83. For the first time a bid to bring about centralisation in the legislative field was made under:
A. Act of 1900
C. Indian Councils Act, 1861
D. Charter Act of 1833.
Ans: D
84. The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the pattern of:
A. Government of India Act, 1935
B. Government of India Act, 1947
C. Constitution of USA
D. Constitution of UK.
Ans: A
85. The British conceded the demand for partition of India under:
A. Cabinet Mission Plan
B. Mountbatten Plan, 1947
C. Cripps Mission
D. Shimla Pact, 1945.
Ans: B
86. The system of “double government” was declared by the:
A. Charter Act of 1813
B. Charter Act of 1833
C. Act of 1858
D. Act of 1909.
Ans: C
87. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties:
A. USA
B. Canada
C. Erstwhile USSR
D. UK.
Ans: C
88. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the:
A. Italian Constitution
B. Canadian Constitution
C. French Constitution
D. Constitution of USA.
Ans: D
89. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 came into force on:
A. 18 July, 1947
B. 14 August, 1947
C. 3 June, 1947
D. 26 July, 1947.
Ans: A
90. On September 8, 2016, President gave assent to Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016. In this regard, which among the following statements is true:
I. The Act seeks to introduce GST regime in India.
II. The Act will transform India into a common market, harmonising myriads of State and Central levies into a national goods and services tax which is expected to boost manufacturing and reduce corruption.
III. It provides for Constitution of a Goods and Services Tax (GST) council by inserting Article 279A in the Constitution.
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. Both I and II are correct
D. All of the above are correct.
Ans: D
91. Which of the following is the best suitable option which describes the Judiciary in the Federal Union of India?
A. Interpreter
B. Mediator
C. Explanatory
D. Surveyor
Ans: A
92. According to clause (3), Article 1 of the Indian Constitution the territory of India shall comprise which of the following?
A. The territories of the states
B. The union territories specified in the first schedule
C. Such other territories as may be acquired
D. All of them
Ans: D
93. A foreign territory would not come under Article 1(3) C of the Indian Constitution until there is a legal transfer of the territory to India, so as to constitute acquisition in _____.
A. International law
B. Foreign law
C. UN Charter
D. Constitutional law
Ans: A
94. By which of the following Amendment Acts Sikkim is associated with the Union?
A. 36th Amendment Act, 1975
B. 36th Amendment Act, 1974
C. 38th Amendment Act, 1975
D. 38th Amendment Act, 1974
Ans: A
95. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Parliament may by law form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states by uniting any territory to a part of any state
II. Parliament may increase or diminish the area of any state
III. Parliament may alter the boundaries or name of any state
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and III
Ans: C
96. Jammu and Kashmir is a state and forms a part of the territory of India, under Article 1(3) of the Indian Constitution But it would be possible for the Parliament of India to increase or diminish the area of Jammu and Kashmir, to alter its name or boundaries in the manner provided in Articles 3-4 only if the:
A. Parliament consents
B. President consents
C. Union Council of ministers consents
D. Legislature of Jammu and Kashmir consents
Ans: D
97. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes “No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purpose of Article 368” of the Indian?
A. Article 4
B. Article 4 (2)
C. Article 4(1)
D. Article 4(1) (2)
Ans: B
98. Which of the following is the correct order of the words as stated in the Preamble of Indian Constitution?
I. Equality
II. Fraternity
III. Justice
IV. Liberty
A. IV, I, II, III
B. IV, III. II, I
C. III, IV, I, II
D. II, I, III, IV
Ans: C
99. In which of the following cases, it was contended that the Preamble to our Constitution should be the guiding star in its interpretation and hence any law made under Article 21 should be held as void if it offended against the principles of natural justice?
A. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
C. Bhim Singh v. Union of India
D. Excel Wear v. Union of India
Ans: A
100. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution read with the word “Socialist” would enable the Court to deduce the fundamental right to ‘equal pay for equal work’?
A. Article 14 and 16
B. Article Hand 15
C. Article 14 and 18
D. Article 14 and 18
Ans: A
101. Which of the following is/are important social institutions through which secularism would find its fruitful and solid base for an egalitarian social order under the Constitution?
A. Inter caste marriage
B. Adoption
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans: C
102. In which of the following cases, the consensus of the majority of the judgment was that the basic structure of the Constitution could not be destroyed or damaged by amending the Constitution in exercise of the power under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution?
A. Waman Rao v. Union of India
B. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
C. Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India
D. none of them
Ans: A
103. The ultimate goal of the Indian Constitution is:
A. Political equality
B. Welfare of the people
C. Economic growth
D. Socialistic approach
Ans: B
104. Since the Constitution Act, (7th Amendment) 1956, all the states belong to one class except__________ for which special provision are mentioned.
A. Leh
B. Haryana
C. Jammu and Kashmir
D. Himachal Pradesh
Ans: C
105. The foreign territories which, on acquisition, would become part of the territory of India under Article 1(3) C of the Indian Constitution can by law be admitted into the Union under Article _____.
A. 2
B. 2A
C. 3A
D. 3
Ans: A
106. Who among the following shall be considered a citizen of India at the commencement of the Indian Constitution?
A. Who was born in the territory of India
B. Either of whose parents was born in the territory of India
C. Who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement
D. All of them
Ans: D
107. A person who or whose father was not born in the territory of India but “who (a) has his domicile in ‘the territory of India’, and (b) has been ordinarily residing within the ‘territory of India’ for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the commencement of the Constitution” is considered as Indian citizen. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes it?
A. Article 5
B. Article 5B
C. Article 5A
D. Article 5C
Ans: D
108. “This Article of the Indian Constitution states that if a person had migrated from the territory of India to the territory now included in Pakistan, after 01-03-1947, he would not acquire the citizenship of India which could have accrued to him by his coming within the terms of Article 5 of the Indian Constitution”. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is it?
A. Article 6A
B. Article 7
C. Article 8
D. Article 6C
Ans: B
109. Which of the following is mentioned in Article 8 of the Indian Constitution?
A. Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan
B. Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan
C. Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India
D. None of them
Ans. C
110. It is not competent for the Central Government to dispose of an application under section________, of the Indian Constitution all without giving an opportunity to the person concerned to show that he has not voluntarily acquired the citizenship of another country or that he has been compelled to obtain a Pakistani passport by force, fraud or misrepresentation. If no such opportunity is given, the resulting order must be quashed.
A. 9
B. 9(1)
C. 9(2)
D. 8
Ans: C
111. Which of the following words emphasize the republican and democratic character of the Indian Polity?
A. President
B. House of People
C. We the people of India
D. Parliament
Ans. C
112. The category of ‘territory in Part D’ was replaced by which of the following?
A. States
B. Union territories
C. Union of States
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. B
113. Which of the following states in India has its own state Constitution?
A. Kerala
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Orissa
Ans. B
114. Which of the following is to be associated with the Union by the Constitution (36th Amendment) Act, 1975?
A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Nagaland
C. Sikkim
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. C
115. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes a person as Indian citizen who is born as well as domiciled in the ‘territory of India’ irrespective of the nationality of his parents?
A. Article 5
B. Article 5 A
C. Article 5 C
D. Article 5 A, B
Ans. B
116. “A person who has migrated to the territory of India from the territory now included in Pakistan shall be deemed to be a citizen of India at the commencement of this Constitution if he or either of his parents or any of his grandparents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935.” In which of the Articles of the Indian Constitution this provision has been given?
A. Article 6
B. Article 5
C. Article 6A
D. Article 5B
Ans. A
117. The ‘migration’ referred to in Article 7 of the Indian Constitution refers to migration between 1-3-1947 and _______ and does not extend to migration after that date, which will be governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955.
A. 26th January, 1950
B. 15th August, 1947
C. 26th November, 1949
D. 22nd July, 1947
Ans. A
118. ‘Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens’ is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 8
B. Article 9
C. Article 7A
D. Article 6
Ans. B
119. If an Indian had voluntarily migrated to a foreign state after 26-1-1950, he will lose his Indian citizenship under the provisions of the________________?
A. Preamble
B. Article 5 and 7
C. Citizenship Act
D. Article 9(2)
Ans. C
120. The power to enact a law relating to citizenship of India is left to______ under the provisions of Article 11 of the Indian Constitution.
A. President
B. Council of ministers
C. House of People
D. Parliament
Ans. D