(a) Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India
(b) Mafatlal Industries Ltd. v. Union of India
(c) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
(d) Unni Krishnan v. State of A.P.
Ans. (b)
2. Which of the following cases is related to the interpretation of Article 142 of the Constitution, which empowers the Supreme Court to pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter before it:
(a) K.M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay
(b) Union Carbide Corp. v. Union of India
(c) Supreme Court Bar Association v. Union of India
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
3. In which of the following case(s) the Apex Court held that; “The criteria for determining backwardness must not be based solely, inter alia on sex”:
(a) State of A.P. v. P. Sugar
(b) V.C. Basant Kumar v. State of Karnataka
(c) Mrs. Raghubans v. State
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
4. “Excessive reservation would be a fraud on the Constitution of India” was observed by the Supreme Court in:
(a) Balaji v. State of Mysore
(b) Indira Swahney v. Union of India
(c) Devadasan v. Union of India
(d) Ajit Singh v. State of Punjab.
Ans. (a)
5. Which one of the following judgments is not related to the ‘doctrine of separation of powers’:
(a) State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
(b) AsifHameed v. State of J & K
(c) Union of India v. Sankatchand
(d) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab.
Ans. (d)
6. In which one of the following judgments, the Apex Court found that “Morality and law cannot be equated with each other”:
(a) V.V. Shivaprasad v. K. Venkateswarlu
(b) Bennett & Coleman Ltd. v. Union of India
(c) P.V. Narasimha Rao v. State
(d) Common Cause v. Union of India.
Ans. (a)
7. In which case the decision of the Supreme Court was a big blow on Article 21 when it held that, “Right to life and personal liberty guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution could not be enforced in view of proclamation of emergency and an order issued under Article 359 (1)”:
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(b) ADM Jobalpur v. Shukla
(c) Minerva Mill Ltd. v. Union of India
(d) Waman Rao v. Union of India.
Ans. (b)
8. Where was it observed by the Supreme Court that Article 16(4) was not in the nature of exception to Article 16 (1):
(a) WA. Baid v. Union of India
(b) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
(c) Balaji v. State of Mysore
(d) Devadasan v. Union of India.
Ans. (b)
9. The decision of the Supreme Court in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, (1988) 1 SCC 471, concerned with Ganga water pollution, was described as “ultra activist” by:
(a) D.D. Basu
(b) T.K. Tope
(c) Subhash Kashyap
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
10. “The power of the President to grant pardon is an independent power distinct from judicial power. It is not judiciable on its merits. Only the area and scope of President’s power under Article 72 can be examined by the court”, was held by the Supreme Court in:
(a) State of Punjab v. Joginder Singh
(b) Kehar Singh v. Union of India
(c) Maru Ram v. Union of India
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
20. “Article 74(1) is mandatory and therefore, the President cannot exercise the executive power without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers”, was observed by the Supreme Court in:
(a) U.N.R. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
(b) Samsher Singh v. State of Punjab
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
21. “The definition of ‘State’ not confined to the Government Department and the Legislature, but extend to any action-administrative (whether statutory or non-statutory), judicial or quasi-judicial, which can be bought within the fold of ‘State action’ being action which violates a fundamental right”, was held by the Supreme Court in:
(a) Ramana v. International Airport Authority of India
(b) Mahabir Auto Stores v. Indian Oil Corp.
(c) Som Prakash v. Union of India
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
22. Section 1(4) of TADA ACT says that offence created by section 3 of Act will be punishable as a crime if the act was committed on or before 24-5-1995, but if same act was committed after 24-5-1995 then it will be not crime which is ex facie violation of Article 14. In which case it is held:
(a) Vijay Kumar Baldev Mishra Sharma v. State of Maharashtra
(b) Paramjit Singh v. Bar Council of India
(c) Pran Nath Gupta v. Union of India
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
23. The Supreme Court enunciated few tests for determining whether an entity is an instrumentality or agency of the State. Which of the following is not one of them:
(a) Where the entire share capital of the corporation is held by the Government.
(b) Where financial assistance of the State can meet almost entire expenditure of the Corporation.
(c) Where the Corporation enjoys monopoly status which is not State conferred.
(d) Existence of deep and pervasive State control.
Ans. (c)
24. Assertion (A): In federalism, there is division of powers between the Centre and the States.
Reason (R): The legislation is nor invalid merely because it incidentally encroaches upon matters which have been assigned to another organ:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
25. “Existing laws which are inconsistent with any provision of Part III are rendered void only with effect from the commencement of the Constitution”, was held by the Supreme Court in:
(a) Nabhirajah v. State of Mysore
(b) Pannalal v. Union of India
(c) Rabindra v. Union of India
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
26. When the court declare certain provisions of the Act invalid, it does not affect the validity of the Act it remains as it is:
(a) Doctrine of severability
(b) Doctrine of eclipse
(c) Doctrine of prospective overruling
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
27. Which one of the following statements are true with regard to the Fundamental Right of the minorities in educational matters:
1. The minority has only the right to administer the educational institutions.
2. The minority has the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
3. The right is absolute and not subject to any restriction.
4. Reasonable restrictions may be imposed to promote efficiency and prevent maladministration.
Select the correct answer using the Codes given below:
Codes –
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3, and 4
(d) 1 and 3.
Ans. (b)
28. Under the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is NOT a specific ground on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion:
(a) Public order
(b) Morality
(c) Social Justice
(d) Health.
Ans. (a)
29. Article 15 (3) of the Constitution of India empowers the State to make special provisions for:
(a) Reservation in employment for freedom fighters
(b) women and children
(c) reservation in employment for physically handicapped persons
(d) relaxation of minimum qualifying marks for admission to those belonging to SC and ST category.
Ans. (b)
30. After the judgment of the Supreme Court in Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, the provision of Article 31C means that:
(a) all Directive Principle can supersede the Fundamental Rights
(b) no Directive Principle can supersede the Fundamental Rights
(c) the Directive Principles contained in Article 39 (a) supersedes the Fundamental Rights
(d) the Directive Principle contained in Article 39 (b) and (c) supersede the Fundamental Rights.
Ans. (a)
31. Section 433A of the Criminal Procedure Code, which retrospectively fixed prison detention for 14 years as mandatory minimum for the life convicts does:
(a) violates Article 20(1)
(b) violates Article 21
(c) not violate any provision of the Constitution
(d) violates Articles 14 and 19.
Ans. (c)
32. Arrange the following decisions of the Supreme Court on Fundamental Right relating to personal liberty in the correct chronological sequence:
1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
2. A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shiva Kant Shukla
3. A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
Select the correct answer using the Codes given below:
Codes –
(a) 3, 2, 1
(b) 2, 1, 3
(c) 2, 3, 1
(d) 1, 2, 3.
Ans. (a)
33. In S.K. Dua v. State of Haryana it was held that retiral benefits if given to retiree after four years of retirement that retiree would be entitled to interest on such benefits relying upon Articles:
(a) Articles 14, 19 and 21
(c) Articles 12, 14 and 16
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
34. Which one of the following is NOT ‘State’ for the purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution:
(a) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(b) A nationalised bank
(c) Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh
(d) Grih Kalyan Kendra.
Ans. (a)
35. Assertion (A): It is the legal and constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to the poor.
Reason (R): No one shall be denied justice by reason of his poverty:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true buy R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)
36. A law, which abridges Fundamental Rights, is not a nullity but remains inoperative till the shadow of Fundamental Rights falls over such rights. This is known as doctrine of:
(a) pleasure
(b) pith and substance
(c) eclipse
(d) severability.
Ans. (c)
37. The Constitution 97th Amendment Act, 2011 assented on 12th January, 2012 relates to:
(a) Constitutional Amendments
(b) Child Rights
(c) Cooperative Societies
(d) Right to Education
Ans. (c)
38. Under Article 26, every religious denomination shall have the right:
(i) to establish and maintain institutions
(ii) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion
(iii) to own and acquire movable and immovable property
(iv) to administer property
(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(c) only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Ans. (d)
39. Mandamus cannot be issued under Article 32 where a fundamental right is infringed by:
(a) a statute
(b) statutory order
(c) executive order
(d) private body.
Ans. (d)
40. Which Article of the Constitution provides that, the Parliament will determine the extent of fundamental rights for the members of the Armed Forces:
(a) Article 31D
(b) Article 32A
(c) Article 33
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
41. According to Article 35, in respect to any of the matters under Articles 16 (3), 32 (3), 33 and 34, who has the power to make laws:
(a) Only Parliament
(b) Only State Legislature
(c) Both the Parliament and State Legislature
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
42. Under Article 24, which place of employment is not explicitly prohibited:
(a) any factory
(b) mine
(c) hazardous employment of any kind
(d) hotel.
Ans. (d)
43. In Explanation II, in sub-clause (b) of clauses (2) of Article 25, the term ‘Hindus’ does not include:
(a) Sikh
(b) Converted Muslim
(c) Jaina
(d) Buddhist.
Ans. (b)
44. Under Article 25 of ‘freedom of religion’ includes:
(i) Conscience
(ii) free profession
(iii) practice
(iv) propagation
(a) only (i) and (iv)
(b) only (ii) and (iii)
(c) only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Ans. (d)
45. The word ‘practice’ mentioned in Article 25 does not include:
(a) Propagation
(b) Religious worship
(c) Rituals
(d) Observations.
Ans. (a)
46. ‘Right to education’ was inserted in the Part III of the Constitution by:
(a) 82nd Amendment Act, 2000
(b) 85th Amendment Act, 2001
(c) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
47. Which one of the following statements is not true:
(a) Clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 apply to persons arrested or detained under a law other than a preventive detention law
(b) Clauses (4) to (7) of Article 22 apply to persons arrested or detained under a preventive detention law
(c) Clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 also cover civil arrest
(d) Article 21 may also supplement the various requirements laid down in Article 22.
Ans. (c)
48. Article 23 of the Constitution does not prohibit:
(a) traffic in human beings
(b) beggar
(c) forced labour
(d) compulsory service for public purposes.
Ans. (d)
49. Prohibition of employment of children of below years is provided under Article 24:
(a) 14 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 7 years
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
50. When a police officer, at the behest of the landlord, beaten up lady tenant and her minor son and the son succumbed to the injuries. The mother is entitled to compensation which includes:
(a) solatium for mental pain and distress.
(b) damages for loss of liberty
(c) damages for death
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
51. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Public Trust’ Doctrine is not true:
(a) It is based on legal theory of the ancient Roman Empire.
(b) The underlying idea of this doctrine is to develop trust among the public
(c) ‘Environment’ bears a very close relationship to this doctrine.
(d) The doctrine enjoins upon the resources for the enjoyment of the general public.
Ans. (b)
52. ‘Right to life’ under Article 21 does not include:
(a) Right to healthy environment
(b) Right to die
(c) Pollution free water and air
(d) Right to live with human dignity.
Ans. (b)
53. “There is no reason to compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution”, was held in:
(a) Murli S. Deora v. Union of India
(b) Samatha v. State of A.P.
(c) M. C. Mehta v. Union of India
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
54. The test of reasonableness under Article 19 includes:
(a) nature of the right infringed
(b) underlying purpose of the restriction imposed
(c) prevailing conditions at the time
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (d)
55. “Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections” is mentioned in_____________ of the Indian Constitution.
A. Article 46
B. Article 47
C. Article 45
D. Article 44
Ans. A
56. Article 48 of the Indian Constitution mention the organization of agriculture and animal husbandry. Which of the following subjects are mentioned in this Article of the Indian Constitution?
A. Organize Agriculture
B. Prohibition of Cow slaughter
C. Milch or draught cattle
D. All of them
Ans. D
57. Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Part____ of Indian Constitution.
A. IV
B. III
C. IV A
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. C
58. Which of the following is/are the part of a fundamental duty?
A. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious
B. To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
C. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
D. All of them
Ans. D
59. Fundamental Duties have been added in the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of which of the following committees?
A. Swarn Singh Committee
B. Vishweshwaraiya Committee
C. Mavlankar’s Committee
D. Ashok Mehta Committee
Ans. A
60. Which of the following terms has/have been used in the Fundamental Duties?
A. Sovereignty
B. Unity
C. Integrity
D. All of them
Ans. B
61. Which of the following is/are to be developed by the citizens, which is considered as their fundamental duty?
A. Scientific temper
B. The spirit of inquiry and reform
C. Humanism
D. All of them
Ans. D
62. Article 53 of the Indian Constitution is associated with which of the following powers of the union?
A. Legislative
B. Executive
C. Judiciary
D. Financial
Ans. B
63. Which of the following is the main function of the Executive?
A. To form law
B. To explain law
C. To implement the law
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans. C
64. Which of the following officers is/are subordinate to the President?
A. Minister
B. Governor
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. C
65. The Indian Parliamentary or Cabinet system of Governor has been borrowed from the Constitution of:
A. Canada
B. England
C. Ireland
D. Australia
Ans. B
66. The Election of the President is done by a/an_______.
A. Electoral College
B. Election Commission
C. Election body consisting legislatures
D. M.P
Ans. A
67. In Article 54 and Article 55 of the Indian Constitution, the term ‘State’ includes which of the following?
A. National Capital Territory of Delhi
B. Union Territory of Daman and Diu
C. Union Territory of Pondicherry
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
68. In which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is the manner of election of President mentioned?
A. Article 53
B. Article 54
C. Article 55
D. Article 56
Ans. C
69. The voting in the election of the President shall be by ____ ballot.
A. Secret
B. Open
C. Descriptive
D. Both (A), and (C)
Ans. A
70. The President shall hold office for a term of__________ from the date on which he enters upon his office.
A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. Till the pleasure of Parliament
D. Not fixed
Ans. A
71. The resignation of the President addressed to the Vice President shall forthwith be communicated to the:
A. Prime Minister
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
D. Council of ministers
Ans. B
72. In which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution the qualification for election of President is mentioned?
A. Article 57
B. Article 56
C. Article 58
D. Article 59
Ans. C
73. Though a person is qualified to be elected as President under clause (1) of Article 58 of the Indian Constitution, he can be disqualified on which of the following grounds?
A. The Candidate holds an ‘office of profit’
B. Such office is held either under the Government of India or under the Government of any state or under any local or other authority subject to the control of either Government
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
74. In which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution have the conditions of President’s office been laid down?
A. Article 58
B. Article 59
C. Article 60
D. Article 61
Ans. B
75. ‘Oath or affirmation by the President’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 58
B. Article 59
C. Article 60
D. Article 61
Ans. C
76. In which of the following Articles is the procedure for impeachment of the President mentioned?
A. Article 61
B. Article 60
C. Article 59
D. Article 58
Ans. A
77. No such charge (Impeachment) against President shall be preferred unless.
I. The proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution which has been moved after at least fourteen days’ notice in writing signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the house has been given of their intention to move the resolution.
II. Such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. Both are correct
B. Neither I nor II
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. A
78. The provision of the post of Vice President of India is contained in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 62
B. Article 63
C. Article 61
D. Article 60
Ans. B
79. In which of the following conditions can the office of the President be vacant?
A. His death
B. His resignation
C. His Removal by impeachment
D. All of them
Ans. D
80. ‘The election of Vice President’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution:
A. Article 64
B. Article 65
C. Article 66
D. Article 65 (1)
Ans. C
81. Which of the following qualifications is/are required for the election of Vice President of the country?
A. Citizen of India
B. Completion of the age of thirty five years
C. Having qualifications for election as a member of the council of states
D. All of them
Ans. D
82. The Vice President shall hold office for a term of _____ from the date on which he enters upon his office.
A. 6 years
B. 5 years
C. till the pleasure of President
D. 4 years
Ans. B
83. ‘Time of holding election to fill vacancy in the office of Vice-President’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution.
A. Article 66
B. Article 67
C. Article 68
D. Article 69
Ans. C
84. Who among the following discharges the functions of President in the event of occurrence of vacancy in the office of both the President and the Vice President?
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Solicitor General
C. Attorney General
D. Speaker of Loksabha
Ans. A
85. The President shall have the power to grant pardons in which of the following cases?
A. In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial
B. In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the union extend
C. In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death
D. All of them
Ans. D
86. Which of the following is/are the meaning of the word ‘remit’?
A. To pardon
B. To refrain from inflicting
C. To give up
D. All of them
Ans. D
87. The Police Power of the State cannot be______.
A. Absolute
B. Arbitrary
C. Oppressive
D. All of them
Ans. D
88. As the system of parliamentary executive reduces the President to a formal or constitutional head of the executive, the real power is being exercised by _____.
A. Council of Ministers
B. Chief Justice
C. Parliament
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. A
89. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of the post of Prime Minister in India?
A. Article 73
B. Article 74
C. Article 75
D. Article 74(1)
Ans. C
90. Which of the following statements according to Article 75 of the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
I. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
II. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
III. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible toe the House of the People.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
91. A person who is not a member of either house of the Parliament can be appointed a minister in the Central Cabinet (including P.M.) for a period of ____________ consecutive month(s).
A. Six
B. Three
C. Two
D. One
Ans. A
92. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution makes mention of the Attorney General for India?
A. Article 75 (1)
B. Article 76
C. Article 77
D. Article 70
Ans. B
93. Which of the following statements regarding the Attorney General is/are found to be correct?
I. In the performance of his duties the Attorney General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
II. The Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.
A. Both are correct
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
94. Which of the following statements regarding the duty of the Prime Minister is/are found to be correct?
I. To communicate to the President all decisions of the council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposal for legislation.
II. To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for.
III. If the President so requires to submit for the consideration of the council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.
A. All are incorrect
B. All are correct
C. II and III
D. I and III
Ans. B
95. Indian Parliament, According to Article 79 of the Indian Constitution, consists of which of the following?
A. President
B. Council of states
C. House of people
D. All of them
Ans. D
96. The number of members to be nominated by the President in the Council of States is:
A. 2
B. 12
C. 6
D. 5
Ans. B
97. The members to be nominated by the President for the council of states are from:
A. Literature
B. Science
C. Article
D. All of them
Ans. D
98. Which of the following statements regarding Proportional Representation is/are found to be correct?
I. It is a method of election according to which ever small parties which would otherwise not be able to get any member of their own elected in the system of election by majority vote, would be able to elect some members in proportion to their strength in the college of electors.
II. Though it is primarily intended for multi-member constituencies, it can also work where there is only one person to be elected i.e. in the case of election of President or Vice President.
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. B
99. The House of the people shall consist of –
I. Not more than five hundred and thirty members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States.
II. Not more than twenty members to represent the Union territories, chosen in such manner as Parliament may by law provide.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None
Ans. C
100. _____ is empowered to make changes only in the description of a constituency under the updating of Delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituency Order, 1976.
A. President
B. Election Commission
C. Council of Ministers
D. State Government
Ans. B
101. Which of the following statements regarding the difference between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is/are found to be correct?
I. The Lok Sabha is a democratic chamber elected directly by the people on the basis of adult suffrage whereas the Rajya Sabha is constituted by indirect elections.
II. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha but not to the Rajya Sabha.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
102. ‘Duration of both the Houses of Parliament’ is mentioned in Article _____ of the Indian Constitution.
A. 81
B. 82
C. 83
D. 84
Ans. C
103. The number of members of the Council of States which shall retire as soon as may be on the expiration of every second year is:
A. Of total members
B. Of total members
C. Of total members
D. Of total members
Ans. A
104. The minimum age required for the election of a candidate in the Council of States is:
A. 35 years
B. 30 years
C. 25 years
D. 21 years
Ans. B
105. The maximum time period allowed between the two sessions of the House in the Parliament is-
A. 3 months
B. Six weeks
C. 6 months
D. 2 months
Ans. C
106. Which of the following statements, according to Article 86 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. The President may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together, and for that purpose require the attendance of members.
II. The President may send message to either House of Parliament, whether with respect to a Bill then pending in Parliament or otherwise, and a House of which any message is so sent shall with all convenient dispatch consider any matter required by the message to be taken into consideration .
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
107. Every Minister and the ____________ shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, but shall not by virtue of Article 88 of the Indian Constitution be entitled to vote.
A. Attorney General
B. Comptroller and Auditor General
C. Chief Election Commissioner
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. A
108. A member holding office as Deputy Chairman of the Council of States:
I. Shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the council.
II. May at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the Chairman, resign his office.
III. May be removed from his office by a resolution of the council passed by a majority of all the then members of the council.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
109. The Chairman or the Deputy Chairman not to preside while, a resolution for his removal from office is under Consideration is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 91
B. Article 92
C. Article 90
D. Article 93
Ans. B
110. A member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the House of the People:
I. Shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House of the People.
II. May at any time, by writing under his hand addressed, if such member is the Speaker, to the Deputy Speaker, and if such member is the Deputy Speaker, to the Speaker, resign his office.
III. May be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. I and III
Ans. A
111. “The Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is not to preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration”. This clause is mentioned in Article ____ of the Indian Constitution.
A. 92
B. 93
C. 95
D. 96
Ans. D
112. Salaries and Allowances of the Chairman, Deputy Chairman, Speaker and the Deputy Speaker may be fixed by the____?
A. President
B. Supreme Court
C. Council of Ministers
D. Parliament
Ans. D
113. Which of the following statements regarding Secretariat of Parliament is/are found to be correct?
I. Each House of Parliament shall have a separate secretarial staff.
II. Parliament may by law regulate the recruitment, and the conditions of service of persons appointed, to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
114. Article 100 of Indian Constitution is associated with which of the following?
A. Vacation of Seats
B. Oath of Affirmation
C. Voting in Houses, power of Houses to act not withstanding vacancies and quorum
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. C
115. The clause ‘Vacation of Seats’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 100
B. Article 101
C. Article 102
D. Article 99
Ans. B
116. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament:
I. If he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any state.
II. If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a Competent Court.
III. If he is an undercharged insolvent.
A. Only I
B. I and III
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
Ans. C
117. If any question arises as to whether a member of either House of Parliament has become subject to any of the disqualifications mentioned in Article 102, the question shall be referred for the decision of the__________ and his decision shall be final.
A. Supreme Court
B. President
C. Speaker
D. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans. B
118. ‘Penalty for sitting and voting before making oath or affirmation under Article 99 of the Indian Constitution or when not qualified or when disqualified is mentioned in Article ____ of the Indian Constitution.
A. 104
B. 103
C. 105
D. 102
Ans. A
119. Which of the following statements regarding Article 105 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. Subject to the provisions of this constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of Parliament, there shall be freedom of speech in Parliament.
II. No member of parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof, and no person shall be so liable in respect of the publication by or under the authority of either House of parliament of any report, paper, votes or proceedings.
A. Both are incorrect
B. Both are correct
C. Only I
D. Only II
Ans. B
120. Salaries and allowances of the members of either House of Parliament may from time to time be determined by the _____?
A. President
B. Attorney General
C. Parliament
D. Ministry of Finance
Ans. C
121. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Legislature Procedure’ is/are found to be correct?
I. A bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
II. A bill pending in the council of States which has not been passed by the House of the People shall not lapse on dissolution of the House of the People.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Neither I nor II
D. I and II
Ans. D
122. If after a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House
I. The Bill is rejected by the other House.
II. The Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill.
III. More than six months elapse from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it, the President may summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill.
Which of the above statements regarding ‘Joint Sitting of both Houses’ is/are found to be correct?
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. None of them
Ans. C
123. For the purposes of Article 110 of the Indian Constitution, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the matters namely:
I. The imposition, abolition, remission, alternation or regulation of any tax.
II. The custody of the consolidated fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys for any such fund.
III. The appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
124. When a Bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the ____ for his assent to Bill?
A. Prime Minister
B. Council of Ministers
C. President
D. Chief Justice
Ans. C
125. The estimates related to expenditure shall be submitted in the form of demands for grants to the House of the People. No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the _____.
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker
D. Finance Minister
Ans. A
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