1. The observation that Article 30(1) is not a charter of mal-administration was made in the case of:
(a) Saifuddin v. State of Bombay
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI
(c) St. Stephen’s College v. University of Delhi
(d) Mittal v. UOI.
Ans. (c)
2. Assertion: We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Democratic Republic.
Reason: A republic will ensure we have a head of state that is democratically elected and accountable to voters. As a result the head of state will be a more effective constitutional safeguard:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)
3. Assertion: In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
Reason: The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation A.
(c) A true but R is false.
(d) A false but R is true.
4. Which of the following writs can be issued only against the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities:
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Quo Warranto
5. The appropriate writ issued by the Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is that of:
(a) Prohibition
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Certiorari
(d) Mandamus.
Ans. (b)
6. Assertion: The Council of Ministers at the centre is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Reason: The members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be ministers of the Union Government:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
7. The right to establish and administer educational institutions to the minorities by Article 30:
(a) is an absolute right so it is free from any regulation
(b) can be regulated in the interest of instruction, discipline, health, sanitation, morality & public order
(c) it does not fall under the purview of Article 30.
Ans. (b)
8. Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right:
(a) right to strike
(b) right against exploitation
(c) right to equality
(d) right to freedom of religion.
9. The right to property was dropped from the list of Fundamental Rights by the:
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) none of the above.
10. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been a subject of maximum controversy and litigation:
(a) right to freedom of speech
(b) right to property
(c) right to constitutional remedies
(d) right to religion.
11. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right:
(a) right to property
(b) right to assemble peacefully
(c) right to move freely throughout the country
(d) right to Constitutional Remedies.
12. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution”:
(a) right to property
(b) right to religion
(c) right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) all of above.
13. Which one of the following is bulwark of personal freedom:
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Quo warranto
(d) Certiorari.
14. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights are restrained by Preventive Detention Act:
(a) right to religion
(b) right to constitutional remedies
(c) right to freedom
(d) right to equality.
Ans. (c)
15. Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal freedoms enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution:
(a) freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(b) freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property
(c) freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country
(d) freedom to carry on any profession, occupation, trade or business.
Ans. (b)
16. The Right against exploitation prohibits:
(a) traffic in human beings
(b) beggar
(c) employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, etc.
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (d)
17. Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens were:
(a) enshrined in the Original Constitution
(b) outlined in an Act passed by Parliament in 1952
(c) incorporated in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment
(d) added by 44th Amendment.
Ans. (a)
18. The Supreme Court may refuse to entertain a petition presented to it under Article 32 of the Constitution for the enforcement of a fundamental right on the ground that:
(a) the petition involves the determination of disputed questions of fact
(b) the petitioner has failed to furnish security as required by a rule made by the Supreme Court under Article 145 of the Constitution
(c) the petitioner should have first approached the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution.
(d) the petitioner has already approached the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution and his petition has been rejected by the High Court on merits.
Ans. (d)
19. A telephonic conversation was secretly tapped by the police while the accused was having conversation with his friend. Can this lay basis for raising the issue validly that:
(a) it infringes the fundamental right against testimonial compulsion under Article 20 (3) of the Constitution;
(b) it infringes the fundamental right to privacy under Article 19 of the Constitution;
(c) it infringes the fundamental right guaranteed in Article 21 relating to personal liberty;
(d) there is no constitutional bar to the prosecution.
Ans. (c)
20. A corporation is ‘State’ for the purpose of enforcement of fundamental rights if:
(a) it is a body registered according to law;
(b) it is an agency or instrumentality of Government
(c) it has to report to Government
(d) the Government service rules are made applicable to its employees.
Ans. (b)
21. Assertion: The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Reason: Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per rent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
22. Which one of the following rights cannot be inferred from Article 21 of the Constitution:
(a) Right against inhuman treatment
(b) Right against delayed execution of death penalty
(c) Right against solitary confinement
(d) Right to form association.
Ans. (d)
23. Assertion: Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression.
Reason: If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)
24. In which of the following cases the new concept of doctrine of equality, i.e. protection against arbitrariness’ was propagated by Justice Bhagwati:
(a) Air India v. N. Mirza
(b) Pradeep Jain v. Union of India
(c) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
(d) D.K. Bakshi v. Union of India.
Ans. (c)
25. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India hold that there was no reason to compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution:
(a) State of U.P. v. K. U. Ansari
(b) Murli S. Deora v. Union of India
(c) State of Punjab v. Raghubir Chand Sharma
(d) C.P. Anand v. Union of India.
Ans. (b)
26. Assertion (A): The entries in the three legislative lists are not always set out with scientific precision.
Reason (R): The entries are not powers but are only fields of legislation:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
27. In which recent judgment it was held that doctrine of “res extra commercium” cannot be extended to prohibit employment of women in Hotels and Bars serving liquor:
(a) Anuj Garg v. Hotel Association of India
(b) National Insurance Co. v. Deepa Devi
(c) Kanil v. Central Diary farm
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
28. The writ of mandamus would be issued when there is failure to:
(a) perform a mandatory duty
(b) perform a discretionary duty
(c) perform an obligation arising out of contract
(d) perform a duty by a private institution.
Ans. (a)
29. Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India, and one or more States
2. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other.
3. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and any corporation or individual on one side and one or more States on the other.
4. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in any dispute between two or more States.
Which of these statements are correct –
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Ans. (b)
30. The judgment of the Supreme Court in Rattan Lai v. State of Punjab by the application of clause (1) of Article 20 of the Constitution of India holds that the said clause prevents retrospective operation of:
(a) civil laws
(b) civil as well as criminal laws
(c) only those civil and criminal laws which provide undue advantage
(d) only those criminal laws which are against the interest of the accused.
Ans. (d)
31. The Supreme Court, while exercising power under Article 136 of the Constitution of India:
(a) frequently interferes in the concurrent findings of the High Court
(b) interferes only when certificate of fitness is issued by the concerned High Court
(c) has no power to interfere in the concurrent findings of the High Court
(d) interferes when it is found that gross injustice has occurred to the petitioner.
Ans. (a)
32. In relation to affiliation of educational institutions with a University, the Supreme Court has pointed out that:
(a) grant of affiliation is purely a discretionary power of the State
(b) affiliation being a Fundamental Right cannot be denied
(c) if an institution fulfils the condition of affiliation, the same must be given and there cannot be any discrimination
(d) if policy of the Government does not permit affiliation, the same may be refused.
Ans. (c)
33. The transfer of Judges from one High Court to another High Court may be made by the:
(a) President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of that High Court
(b) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
(c) Governor of the concerned State in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
Ans. (d)
34. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be forced to give his thumb impression. Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
35. The decision of the Supreme Court declared certain portion of Article 31 C as ‘ultra vires’ of the Constitution in which one of the following cases:
(a) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(b) Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(c) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
36. In 1971, a new Article 31C inserted in the Constitution which provides that a law giving effect to the Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c) will not be void on the ground of contravention of Article 14, 19 or 31. This insertion was made by which of the following Amendments:
(a) Twenty-sixth
(b) Twenty-fifth
(c) Twenty-fourth
(d) Twenty-one.
Ans. (b)
37. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct with respect to Twenty-sixth Amendment Act, 1971:
(a) It terminated the privy purses and privileges of the Rulers of former Indian States.
(b) It omitted Articles 291 and 362 from the Constitution
(c) It inserted new Article 363A in the Constitution
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
38. In which one of the following decisions, the Supreme Court held that the power of posting a district judge under Article 233 does not include the power of transfer of such judge from one station to another and that the power of transfer of a district judge vested in the High Court under Article 235:
(a) Chandra Mohan v. State of U.P.
(b) State of West Bengal v. Bela Banerjee
(c) State of West Bengal v. Subodh Gopal
(d) Sagir Ahmed v. State of U.P.
Ans. (a)
39. For the first time, which Amendment Act, made it clear that the ‘State’ in clauses (a) to (e) of Article 3 of the Constitution includes ‘Union Territories’:
(a) Seventeenth
(b) Eighteenth
(c) Nineteenth
(d) Twentieth.
Ans. (b)
40. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court decided that, a constitutional amendment which “takes away or abridges” a fundamental right would be void, and therefore, forced the Parliament to enact the Twenty-fourth Amendment Act:
(a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India
(c) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.
Ans. (c)
41. Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of Article 116 of the Indian Constitution the House of the People shall have power
I. To make any grant in advance in respect of the estimated expenditure for a part of any financial year pending the completion of the procedure prescribed in Article 113 for the voting of such grant and the passing of the law in accordance with the provisional of Article 114 of the Indian Constitution in relation to that expenditure.
II. To make an exceptional grant which forms no part of the current service of any financial year.
Which of the above statements regarding votes on account and exceptional grants is/are found to be correct?
A. I and III
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
42. Who among the following is/are consulted by the President to make rules as to the procedure with respect to joint sittings of, and communications between, the two Houses?
A. Chairman of the Council of States
B. Speaker of the House of the People
C. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
43. Subject to the provisions of Article ___________ of the Indian Constitution, business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English.
A. 348
B. 368
C. 325
D. 350
Ans. A
44. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.
II. No offer or Member of Parliament in whom powers are vested by or under this constitution for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order, in Parliament shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers.
A. Both I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
45. An ordinance promulgated under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, but every such Ordinance:
I. Shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or, if before the expiration of that period resolution disapproving it are passed by both Houses, upon the passing of the second of those resolutions.
II. May be withdrawn at any time by the President.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of them
Ans. C
46. Originally, the Supreme Court of India consisted of a Chief Justice of India and not more than ____ other Judges.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 17
Ans. B
47. The Judges of the Supreme Court can hold the office up to the age of ____years.
A. 62
B. 60
C. 65
D. 61
Ans. C
48. Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from their office by-
A. Impeachment
B. President
C. Council of Ministers
D. House of the People
Ans. A
49. The salaries paid to the Judges of Supreme Court is determined by the-
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Chief Justice
D. C.A.G
Ans. B
50. Which of the following statements regarding appointment of ad hoc Judges is/are found to be correct?
I. The Chief Justice of India may, with the previous consent for the President and after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned, request in writing the attendance at the sittings of the court, as an ad hoc judge, for such period as may be necessary.
II. It shall be the duty of the Judges who has been so designated, in priority to other duties of his office, to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court at the time and for the period for which his attendance is required.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D None of them
Ans. A
51. Which of the following is considered a Court of record?
A. High Court
B. Supreme Court
C. Subordinate Court
D. None of above
Ans. B
52. Which of the following is/are included in scandalising a Judge or the Court?
A. Defamatory publication concerning the Judge as a Judge or any caricature of a Judge calculated to lower the dignity of the Court
B. Imputing partiality, corruption, bias, improper motives to a Judge
C. Imputing lack of impartiality or fairness to a Judge in the discharge of his official duties
D. All of them
Ans. D
53. The seat of Supreme Court can be shifted to other place by:
A. President
B. Council of minister
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Chief Justice of India with the approval of the President
Ans. D
54. Which of the following matters is/are excluded from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
A. Matters referred to the Finance Commission
B. Adjustment of certain expenses as between the Union and the states
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. C
55. A certificate may be granted by a High Court under Clause (1) of Article 132 (Appellate Jurisdiction) if:
I. The case should involve a question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
II. The said question must be a substantial one.
III. The applicant must have been a ‘party’ to the case before the high Court.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
56. Pick out the correct statements regarding the term ‘Judgment’ given in Article 133 of the Indian Constitution?
I. The word Judgment, in Article 133, of the Indian Constitution has been used in the sense of a decision finally determining the rights of the parties in the proceedings and not as defined in C.P. Code
II. An order which is not ‘final’ cannot be deemed to be a judgement.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C
57. Which of the following have been held to be questions of fact and not of law?
A. Whether a fact has been proved when evidence for and against has been properly received
B. Whether a statutory presumption has been rebutted
C. Whether an endowment is private or public, there being no question of misconstruction of a document involved
D. All of them
Ans. D
58. If there has been a miscarriage of justice or the violation of some principles of law of procedure, the Supreme Court might interfere with concurrent findings of fact. Which of the following mean ‘Miscarriage of Justice’?
A. Where the findings are not supported by any evidence on the record
B. Where the finding is so perverse that it shocks the conscience
C. A violation of the principles of natural justice
D. All of them
Ans. D
59. Which of the following is/are not the final orders in criminal proceedings?
A. An order on a bail petition
B. An order of remand, for hearing on the merits, after disposing of a question of law
C. An order for retrial, after setting aside the order of acquittal
D. All of them
Ans. D
60. Under Article 136, of the Indian Constitution the Supreme Court shall have the power to grant special leave to appeal:
A. From any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order
B. In any cause or matter
C. Passed or made by any court or tribunal, in territory of India
D. All of them
Ans. D
61. Which of the following statements regarding Practice and Procedure of Special Leave is/are found to be correct?
I. Untrue or misleading statements should not be made in applications for special leave.
II. In the exercise of its discretion the court may refuse leave on the ground of misrepresentation or Suppression of material facts.
III. In spite of the parties being represented by the learned Counsel, the Supreme Court may appoint an amicus curiae to assist the Court.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and III
Ans. C
62. The Court will not interfere with judgments or orders of Criminal Courts, on special leave:
I. Where the plea of misjoinder of charges is without substance.
II. To examine the reasons for coming to certain conclusion of fact.
III. Merely to question a finding of fact which is in favour of the accused.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III
Ans. A
63. Which of the following is/are not the grounds for the review of judgements or orders by the Supreme Court?
A. Non-Providing an appeal, would not confer a right of hearing of the review
B. Failure of the petitioners to furnish the necessary material during the pendency of appeal
C. Where the contentions raised concerned the merits
D. All of them
Ans. D
64. Parliament may by law confer on the Supreme Court power to issue directions, orders or writs including writs in the nature of:
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Prohibition
D. All of them
Ans. D
65. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The law declares by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all Courts within the territory of India.
II. The general principles of law laid down by the Supreme Court is applicable to every person including those who were not parties to that order.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. A
66. Which of the following statements regarding the duty of High Courts and inferior courts is/are correct?
A. When some principle has been laid down by the Supreme Court or some practice deprecated, it should be the duty of the High Courts or subordinate courts to follows the decision of the Supreme Court
B. A judgment of the High Court which refuses to follow the directions of the Supreme Court or seeks to revive a decision of the High Court which had been set aside by the Supreme Court, is a nullity
C. The order of the Supreme Court is not capable of nor can it be construed as overriding or superseding the provisions of an act
D. All of them
Ans. D
67. The questions of which of the following natures has been referred by the President under Article 143 of the Indian Constitution to consult the Supreme Court?
A. The constitutionality of an existing law
B. The implementation of an international agreement
C. The constitutionality of a Bill presented for the President’s assent
D. All of them
Ans. D
68. Subject to the provision any law made by the Parliament, the Supreme Court may from time to time, with the approval of the President, make rules for regulating generally the practice and procedure of the Court including-
A. Rules as to the persons practicing before the Court
B. Rules as to the granting of bail
C. Rules as to stay of proceedings
D. All of them
Ans. D
69. The salaries, allowances and pension payable to the officers and servants of the Supreme Court shall be charged upon the ____.
A. Contingency Fund
B. Consolidated Fund
C. Treasury Fund
D. Either (A) or (B)
Ans. B
70. The salary and other conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General (C.A.G.) shall be determined by the ____.
A. President
B. Prime Minister Office
C. Parliament
D. Council of Ministers
Ans. C
71. The accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as the President may prescribe on the advice of _____.
A. Solicitor General
B. Comptroller and Auditor General
C. Attorney General
D. Parliament
Ans. B
72. Which of the following states is not included in the expression ‘State’ according to Article 152?
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Himachal Pardesh
C. Arunachal Pardesh
D. Sikkim
Ans. A
73. The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the _____ by warrant under his hand and seal.
A. Prime Minister
B. Council of Ministers
C. President
D. Chief Justice of High Court
Ans. C
74. No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of ____ years.
A. 25
B. 30
C. 21
D. 35
Ans. D
75. Who among the following can make such provision for the discharge of the functions of the Governor of a State in any contingency not provided for in the constitution?
A. Parliament
B. President
C. Supreme Court
D. High Court
Ans. B
76. In which of the following forms may the pardoning power be used by the Governor?
A. Granting amnesty or general pardon to convicts or under trial prisoners charged with political or non-political offences
B. Granting pardon to an accused before, during or after trial, ever in cases of criminal contempt of court, with or without condition
C. Reprieving or suspending a sentence, with or without condition, during pendency of an appeal
D. All of them
Ans. D
77. State Council of Ministers is headed by the_______.
A. Chief Minister
B. Governor
C. Finance Minister
D. Prime Minister
Ans. A
78. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The function of advising the Governor is vested by Article 163(1) of the Indian Constitution in the ‘Council of Ministers’ and not the Chief Minister.
II. The Chief Minister shall be at the head of and preside over the Council of Ministers.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. None of them
Ans. A
79. Other ministers of the Council of Ministers shall be appointed by the ____.
A. Governor
B. Prime Minister
C. Chief Minister
D. Governor on the advice of Chief Minister
Ans. D
80. Abrogation is:
A. The enactment or enforcement of a law without authority of the legislative power
B. The abatement of a law by authority of the legislative power
C. The annulment or repeal of a law by authority of the legislative power
D. None of them
Ans. C
81. The total number of ministers including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed _____________ of the total members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.
A. 6%
B. 12%
C. 15%
D. 10%
Ans. C
82. The Advocate General for the State is appointed by the ____.
A. Chief Minister
B. Governor
C. Council of Minister
D. Chief Justice
Ans. B
83. The Advocate General for the State will receive such remuneration as the _____ may determine.
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Governor
D. State legislative Assembly
Ans. C
84. Accede:
A. Implies a yielding
B. Implies a firm
C. Implies that which is contrary to good order or established usage
D. None of them
Ans. A
85. Which of the following is/are included in the expression ‘Executive Action’?
I. Orders which embody quasi-judicial decision taken by Government.
II. An order of sanction for prosecution.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans. C
86. Which of the following statements regarding the duty of the Chief Minister is/are found to be correct?
I. To communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation.
II. To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for.
III. If the Governor so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
Ans. D
87. _____ may by law provide for the abolition of legislative Council of a State or for the creation of such a council in a State with the consent of two-third majority of the State legislative Assembly?
A. Supreme Court
B. Parliament
C. High Court
D. President
Ans. B
88. Active service:
A. Means service at outposts or against hostile tribes or other persons in the field
B. Service or duty during the period of operation of a Proclamation of Emergency issued under clause (1) of Article 352 of the Constitution;
C. Service or duty during any period declared by the Central Government as a period of active service with reference to any area in which any person or class of persons subject to naval law may be serving
D. All of them
Ans. D
89. The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State having such a council shall not exceed ______ of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State.
A. One-third
B. One-fourth
C. Two-third
D. Three-fourth
Ans. A
90. The number of members of the Legislative Council of State elected by the electorates consisting of members of municipalities, district boards and such other local authorities is:
A. One-fourth
B. One -sixth
C. One-twelfth
D. One-third
Ans. D
91. State which of the following statements is incorrect:
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General controls all disbursements and audits the accounts of both the Union and the State Governments
(b) He annually submits a report to the President relating to the accounts of Union
(c) The annual report of the Comptroller and Auditor General is considered by Public Accounts Committee of Parliament
(d) No money by the Union and State Governments can be spent without prior approval of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
Ans. (d)
92. A Financial Bill deals with all those matters which are dealt with by a Money Bill but it includes other matters also. Give correct response:
(a) A Financial Bill cannot be rejected by the Upper House
(b) The President cannot withhold his assent to a Financial Bill
(c) The Financial Bill can be presented in either House
(d) A Financial Bill must be passed by both the Houses and in case of differences between two Houses; the same would be resolved by joint sitting of both the Houses.
Ans. (d)
93. The power of allocation of seats in the House of People to the States and the constituencies is vested with:
(a) Parliament
(b) Election Commission
(c) Administrative Tribunals
(d) State Legislatures.
Ans. (a)
94. It was held that Chief Minister or a Minister is in pay of the Government and therefore public servant within the meaning of section 21(2) of IPC in the case:
(a) Karunanidhi v. UOI
(b) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(c) Kalyan Singh v. UOI
(d) Jayalalitha v. State of Tamil Nadu.
Ans. (c)
95. Money Bills can be:
(a) invalid by Rajya Sabha
(b) invalid by both the Houses
(c) Rajya Sabha can reject the money bills
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (d)
96. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of:
(a) 14 days
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (a)
97. Who have a right to speak or otherwise take part in the proceedings of either House in any joint sitting of the Parliament without voting right:
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Auditor and Comptroller General of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief Election Commissioner.
Ans. (a)
98. Give the correct response to:
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha are presiding officers in the respective Houses
(b) both the Speaker and the Chairman need not be a member of the respective Houses
(c) both the Speaker and the Chairman are elected by the members of the respective Houses after consulting the President
(d) Prime Minister appoints them.
Ans. (a)
99. Give correct response to:
(a) It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President, whenever he requires
(b) The Prime Minister need not communicate all decisions to the President
(c) It is not obligatory on the part of Prime Minister to communicate the decision to the President
(d) The President cannot compel the Prime Minister to give the information he has.
Ans. (a)
100. The advice given by the Council of Ministers to the President and its rejection by him may be:
(a) questioned by the Supreme Court of India
(b) it may not be questioned in any court of law
(c) the rejection of the advice by the President is unconstitutional
(d) it may be questioned by the Prime Minister.
Ans. (b)
101. The Union Parliament is composed of:
(a) the House of People, the Council of States and the President
(b) The President, Vice-President and the Prime Minister
(c) The House of People, the State Legislative Assemblies and the Legislative Councils
(d) The Legislative Assemblies, the Legislative Council and the Governor.
Ans. (a)
102. The quorum to constitute a meeting of the House of Parliament shall be:
(a) 1/10th of total number of members
(b) 2/3rd of total number of members
(c) 1/3rd of total number of members
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (a)
103. Prorogation of the House means:
(a) A House has been brought in Session
(b) The Session of the House has been terminated
(c) The House itself stands terminated
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
104. If a person gets elected to both the Houses of Parliament or State Legislature or is a member of House of Parliament as well as House of State Legislature:
(a) He may enjoy membership of both the House
(b) He may give up one of the seats
(c) He must give up one of the seats
(d) He must vacate both the seats.
Ans. (c)
105. The Constitution of India provides special procedure for:
(a) Money Bills
(b) Financial Bills
(c) Both Money Bills and Financial Bills
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
106. A member of either House of Parliament shall be disqualified if:
(a) he is an undischarged insolvent
(b) he is disqualified by any law made by Parliament
(c) he is disqualified under any law made by Parliament
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d)
107. A member of Parliament makes a defamatory statement against a person in Parliament and then circulates it outside Parliament not in discharge of his essential duties as a member:
(a) he is protected and cannot be sued in a court of law as members of Parliament enjoy freedom of speech
(b) he is protected only regarding the speech made by him in the House and not otherwise
(c) he is not protected and can be sued in court of law as circulation of defamatory statement outside Parliament does not come within the immunity granted to a member
(d) he can be protected in a Court but action can be taken by the Speaker.
Ans. (c)
108. Assertion (A): The Council of Minister is the hub of the Parliamentary pattern of Government.
Reason (R): The Government is constituted from the majority party:
(a) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
109. Assertion (A): The President has a right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law of fact.
Reasons (R): The Constitution makes it obligatory for the President to accept the advice rendered by the Supreme Court:
(a) both A and R is true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
110. The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is concerned with:
(a) matters with the responsibilities of municipalities
(b) legislative assemblies for Delhi and Pondicherry
(c) powers and functions of Panchayati Raj institutions
(d) the election of Panachayati Raj in all States.
Ans. (c)
111. The system of representation of elections to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies is:
(a) proportional representation
(b) territorial representation
(c) functional representation
(d) different from one another.
Ans. (a)
112. The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) Chief Justice.
Ans. (a)
113. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister:
(a) the ministry is dissolved
(b) fresh general election must take place
(c) the Cabinet may choose another leader
(d) President’s decision.
Ans. (a)
114. Which of the following is true:
I. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha
II. If the President has notified about his intention to summon a joint sitting on a Bill, the Bill does not lapse even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the notification
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) both I & II
(d) neither I nor II.
Ans. (b)
115. When a resolution for his removal is under consideration, the Speaker:
I. does not take part in the proceedings of the House
II. has no right to vote
III. has a right to speak in the House even though he shall not preside
(a) I
(b) I & II
(c) II
(d) III.
Ans. (d)
116. Representatives of Union Territories in Lok Sabha are choosen by:
(a) direct elections
(b) indirect elections
(c) nomination
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (d)
117. Rajya Sabha has the exclusive authority to:
(a) impeach the Vice-President
(b) intimate impeachment proceedings against the Chief Election Commissioner
(c) recommend the creation of new All India Services
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (c)
118. A law made by Parliament having extraterritorial operation shall:
(a) not be deemed invalid
(b) be deemed invalid
(c) be deemed ultra vires
(d) be deemed constitutional.
Ans. (a)
119. Assertion (A): Parliament or a State Legislature should keep within the domain assigned to it and one should not tresspass into the domain reserved for the others.
Reasons (R): Legislation will be invalid even if it incidentally trenches or encroaches on matters which have been assigned to another Legislature:
(a) both A & R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
120. The State of J & K enjoy a special status under the Article 370 of the Constitution. But under Article 370(3), the President may declare that Article 370 shall cease to be operative. This power is subject to:
1. Public notification
2. Recommendation of Parliament
3. Advice of the Union Council of Ministers
4. Recommendations of the constituent Assembly of J & K
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct.
Ans. (d)
121. When the name of the State is changed or a new State is created, the Constitution of India is required to be amended by Parliament by a:
(a) simple majority as under Articles 107 & 108
(b) majority of total numbers of both the Houses under Article 368
(c) special majority under Article 368
(d) special majority after obtaining opinion of the concerned State, under Article 3 of the Constitution.
Ans. (a)
122. The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd majority of total number of members of the House of Parliament is applicable in case of:
(a) amendment of the Constitution
(b) approval of proclamation of emergency
(c) impeachment of President
(d) disapproval by proclamation of emergency.
Ans. (c)
123. Articles 155-156 of the Indian Constitution deal with:
(a) Inter-State Commerce Commission
(b) Election Commission
(c) Legislative Councils
(d) President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor.
Ans. (d)
124. The membership of a State Legislative Council:
(a) shall not be more than 1/3rd of the membership of the Legislative Assembly
(b) shall not be less than 40
(c) shall not be less than 2/3rd of total membership of Lok Sabha
(d) both (a) and (b).
Ans. (d)
125. What is the minimum gap permissible between two Sessions of Parliament:
(a) 6 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 6 months, 10 days
(d) 90 days.
Ans. (d)
126. Who presides over the joint Session of the two Houses of Indian Parliament:
(a) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) President and Speaker as the situation may be
(c) Vice-President and Speaker as the situation may be
(d) Speaker.
Ans. (b)
127. A member of Parliament can be disqualified on the ground of dejection if:
I. he leaves the party as a result of split in the party along with members who constitute only 1/3rd of the total membership of that party
II. a nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House
III. he gives up membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected
IV. he votes or abstains from voting in the House against the direction of political party without prior permission
(a) I, II, III
(b) III and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and II.
Ans. (b)
128. Give correct response to:
I. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha
II. All Financial Bills are not Money Bills
III. A Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President
IV. Rajya Sabha is fully empowered to reject or amend a Financial Bill as it does in the case of ordinary bill
(a) I and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) I and III
(d) II, III and IV.
Ans. (b)
129. The Council of Ministers remains in office as long, as it enjoys the confidence of:
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister.
Ans. (c)
130. Give correct response to:
(a) Money Bill cannot be introduced in Lok Sabha
(b) The Speaker is appointed by the President
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement
(d) Rajya Sabha has no power to pass a vote of no-confidence on the Council of Ministers.
Ans. (d)
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