Q. The period from birth to the natural death of an organism signifies

 Reproductive phase

 Life cycle

 Life span

 Life style

Answer: C (Life span)

Q. Clone is the product of

Sexual reproduction

 Sexual or asexual reproduction

 Amphimixis

Asexual reproduction

Answer: D (Asexual Reproduction)

Q. In monerans and protists, sexual reproduction takes place by

 Budding

 Multiple fission

 Binary fission

Amphimixis

Answer: C (Binary fission)

Q. In animal and other simple organism uniparental reproduction is called_______ reproduction in plant called________ reproduction

 Vegetative, asexual

Asexual, vegetative

 Parthenogenetic, amphimictic

 Amphimictic, apomictic

Answer: B (Asexual, vegetative)

Q. Which one of the following is not vegetative propagule?

Rhizome and sucker

Tuber and offset

Bulbil, leaf buds, bulb

Antherozoid

Answer: D (Antherozoid)

Q. Oestrus cycle is seen in

 Cows and sheep

 Rats and deer’s

 Dogs and tiger

 All of these

Answer: D (All of these)

Q. Which of the following plant exhibit unusual flowering phenomena?

Mango and litchi

 Mango and maize

Litchi and pea

 Bamboo species and strobila thus species

Answer: D (Bamboo species and strobila thus species)

Q. Which of the following plant do not show clear vegetative, reproductive, and senescent phase?

Perennial plant

 Annual plant

 Biennial plant

 Either B or C

Answer: A (Perennial plant)

Q. The fastest method to obtain clones is through

Induced mutation

 Para sexual hybridization

Parthenogenesis

 Vegetative reproduction

Answer: D (Vegetative reproduction)

Q. Internal fertilization occurs in

 Many fungi

 Reptiles and mammals

 Bryophytes, pteridophytes gymnosperms and angiosperms

 All of these

Answer: D (All of these)

Q. In Heterogamous organism the male gametes and female gametes are called respectively

 Spermatogonia, oogonia

 Spermatid, ootid

 Sperm, ovum

 Sperm and oospore

Answer: C (Sperm, ovum )

Q. In which of the following water is essential for fertilization

 Algae

 Bryophytes

 Pteridophytes

 All of these

Answer: D (All of these)

Q. In majrity of organism’s male gamete is _____ and female gamete is______

 Motile, motile

 Non – motile, non – motile

Non – motile, motile

 Motile, non-motile

Answer: D (Motile, non – motile)

Q. Offspring of oviparous animals are at a greater risk as compared to offspring of various animals because

 Proper embryonic care and protection is lesser

 Embryo is not developed

 Progenies are with more variation

Progenies are larger

Answer: A (Proper embryonic care and protection is lesser)

Q. Which of the following statement is true about water hyacinth?

 It gives product to be used in medicine

 It is a marine plant

It takes oxygen from water which causes death of fishes

 It is being cultivated in seawater for biogas

Answer: C (It take oxygen from water which causes death of fishes)

Q. Zoospores are

 Motile gametes of Chlamydomonas

 Non motile gametes of sponges

 Motile gametes of hydra

 Non motile gametes of penicillium

Answer: A (Motile gamates of Chlamydomonas)

Q. Sexual reproductive structures found in Penicillium are

 Conidia

 Buds

 Gemmules

 Zoospore

Answer: A (Conidia)

Q. Gemmule formation is a common mode of reproduction in

Hydra

 Sponge

 Penicillium

 Amoeba

Answer: B (Sponge)

Q. Strobila thus Cynthiana is also called

 Neela kuranji

 Peela kuranji

 Hara kuranji

 Kala kuranji

Answer: A (Neela kuranji)

Q. Oestrus cycle is cyclic change in the activities of ovaries and accessory duct in non-primates during

 Reproductive period

 Maturation period

 Ageing period

 Juvenile period

Answer: A (Reproductive period)

Q. Name the type of gametes found in algae

 Homogamates

 Heterogamates

 Anisogametes

 All of these

Answer: D (All of these)

Q. Under a heterogametic condition male gamete is commonly known as

 Antherozoid

 Sperm

 Egg

 Both A and B

Answer: D (Both A and B)

Q. The condition wherein male and female parts are present on variable plants is called

 Heterothallic

 Dioecious

 Unisexual

 All of these

Answer: D (All of these)

Q. The condition wherein both male and female reproductive organs are found on the identical plant is called

 Unisexual

 Bisexual

 Monoecious

 Both B and C

Answer: D (Both B and C)

Q. Which one of the succeeding is hermaphrodite?

 Ant

 Aphids

 Earthworm

 Cockroach

Answer: C (Earthworm)

Q. Which of the following statement regarding pollination is accurate?

 Mostly occur in dioecious plants

 Facilitates Pollen transfer to stigma

 Both A and B

 None of the above

Answer: C ( Both A and B)

Q. Parthenogenesis is the process wherein new organism is formed

 With fertilization

 Without fertilization

 Through mitosis

 Through meiosis

Answer: B (Without fertilisation)

Q. Probability of survival of young ones are greater in the case of ______ individuals.

 Oviparous

 Viviparous

 Ovoviviparous

 None of these

Answer: B (Viviparous)

 Q. The Terminal structure of stamen is called

 Pollen

 Filament

 Anther

 All of these

Answer: C (Anther)

Q. The lengthwise running groove on and anther which separate theca is called

 Rupture line

 Line of dehiscence

 Suture of Anther

 None of these

Answer: B (Line of dehiscence)

Q. Number of microsporangia in angiosperm anther is

 1

 2

 3

 4

Answer: D (4)

Q. Microsporangium develops into

 Pollens

 Microgamates

 Megagamates

 Pollen sac

Answer: D (Pollen sac)

Q. The innermost layer of microsporangium is

 Tapetum

 Endothecium

 Middle layer

 Epidermis

Answer: A (Tapetum)

Q. Centre of each microsporangium is occupied by

 Sporogenous tissue

 Tapetum

 Central tissue

 Microspore mother cell

Answer: A (Sporogenous tissue)

Q. Which of the following perform microsporogenesis?

 Microspore mother cell

 Pollen mother cell

 Both A and B

 None of the above

Answer: C (Both A and B)

Q. Microspore tetrad (pollen grains) is a result of

 Mitotic cell division

 Meiotic cell division

 Both A and B

 None of these

Answer: B (Meiotic cell division)

   Q. Intine is made up of

 Cellulose

 Pectin

 Both A and B

 Protein

Answer: C (Both A and B)

Q. Which cell is bigger and have abundant food reserve material during microsporogenesis?

 Generative cell

 Vegetative cell

 Vacuole

 Spore mother cell

Answer: B (Vegetative cell)

Q60% of the angiosperms shed their pollens at the

 2 – celled stage

 3 – celled stage

 4 – celled stage

 1- celled stage

Answer: A (2 – celled stage)

Q. Function of filiform apparatus is to

 Recognise the suitable Pollen at stigma

 Stimulate division of generative cell

 Produce nectar

 Guide the entry of pollen tube

Answer: D (Guide the entry of pollen tube)

Q. Pollens are stored at which temperature

 -196°C

 196°C

 10°C

 0°C

Answer: A (-196 º C)

Q. Embryo sac is also called

 Female gamete

 Synergids

 Female gametophyte

 Egg of angiosperm

Answer: C (Female gametophyte)

Q. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is

 Microspore

 Pollen

 Potential Pollen or microspore mother cell

 Megaspore mother cell

Answer: C (Potential pollen or microspore mother cell)

Q. Two nuclei with one cell are found in

 Antipodal cell

 Chalazal cell

 Central cell

 Synergid cell

Answer: C (Central cell)

Q. The most common abiotic pollinating agency in flowering plant is

 Water

 Wind

 Both A and B

 None of these

Answer: B (Wind)

Q. Advantage of cleistogamy is

 Higher genetic variability

 More vigorous of offspring

 No dependence on pollinators

 Vivipary

Answer: C (No dependence on pollinators)

Q. Characteristics of wind pollinated pollens is, they are

 Non – sticky

 Light

 Large number in production

 All the above

Answer: D (All of the above)

Q. Continued self-pollination results in

 Inbreeding depression

 Outbreeding depression

 Hybrid vigour

 Better result in offsprings

Answer: A (Inbreeding depression)

Q. Polar nuclei are in

Pollen tube

Embryo sac

Ovule

Thalamus

Answer: B (Embryo sac)

Q. Generally Pollen tube enters through

 Micropylar region

 Antipodal region

 Chalazal end

 Nuclear region

Answer: A (Micropylar region)

Q. PEC (primary endosperm cell) is formed

 After triple fusion

 Before triple fusion

 At the time of syngamy

 Always persisted

Answer: A (After triple fusion)

Q. Gametogenesis in haploid plant involves

Binary fission

Meiosis

Mitosis

Amitosis

Answer: C (Mitosis)

Q. In angiosperm, Pollen tube liberate their male gamete’s into the

 Central cell

 Antipodal cell

 Egg cell

 Synergids

Answer: D (Synergids)

Q. Out of the following choose the post fertilization event.

 Endospermogenesis

 Embryogenesis

 Both A and B

 Organogenesis

Answer: C (Both A and B)

Q. Perisperm is

Outer part of embryo sac

Degenerate synergid

Degenerate secondary nucleus

Remains of nucellus

Answer: D (Remains of nucellus)

Q. Function of suspensor in embryo is

Absorption of norishment

Push the embryo into nuritive endosperm region

Formation of secondary embryo

All of the above

Answer: B (Push the embryo into nutritive endosperm region)

 Q. An ovule has generally how many embryo sac?

 1

 3

 4

 8

Answer: A (1)

Q. This of the following devices is not used by plants to prevent autogamy –

 Self-incompatibility

 Production of unisexual flower

 Heterostyly

 Production of cleistogamous flowers

Answer: D (Production of cleistogamous flowers)

Q. Which is not diploid?

 Nucellus

 Integuments

 Endosperm

 Embryo

Answer: C (Endosperm)

Q. Maturation of stigma and another at different time in the same flower is

 Heterstyle

 Dichogamy

 Dicliny

 Herkogamy

Answer: B (Dichogamy)

Q. Movement of pollen tube towards embryo sac is

 Thermotactic

 Phototactic

 Chemotactic

 Thigmotatic

Answer: C (Chemotactic)

Q. Type of cell division takes place in apomixis is

 Reductional

 Meiosis

 Both A and B

 Mitosis

Answer: D (Mitosis)

Q. Occurrence of more than one embryo is called

 Polyembryony

 Embryony

 Parthenogenesis

 Fertilization

Answer: A (Polyembryony)

Q. Germ pore is the area where exine is

Thick

 Thick and uniform

 Uniform

 Absent

Answer: D (Absent)

Q. Pollen kit is formed from

 Endothecium

 Middle layer

 Microspore mother cell

 Tapetum

Answer: D (Tapetum)

Q. Remnants of nucellus present in seed are called

 Pericarp

 Periderm

 Endosperm

 Perisperm

Answer: D (Perisperm)

Q. A seed is formed from

 Ovule

 Embryo

 Embryo sac

 Ovary

Answer: A (Ovule)

Q. Which of the following is a secondary sex organ?

Beard

Uterus

Ovary

Broad hips

Answer: B (Uterus)

Q. Secondary sexual characters in females are due to:

Estrogens

Androgens

Progesterone

Cholecystokinin

Answer: A (Estrogens)

Q. Scrotal sacs relate to abdominal cavity by

Vaginal cavity

Inguinal canal

Spermatic canal

Haversian canal

Answer: B (Inguinal canal)

Testis

Ovaries

Scrotal sacs

Epididymis

Answer: A (Testis)

Q. Sperms are produced in

Vas deferens

Prostate gland

Interstitial cells

Seminiferous tubules

Answer: D (Seminiferous tubules)

Q. Which of the following is found in the interstitial connective tissue of testis?

Sertoli cells

Sustencular cells

Leydig cells

Chromaffin cells

Answer: C (Leydig cells)

Q. Location of leydig cells and their secretions are

Ovary–Estrogen

Liver–Cholestrol

Testis–Testosterone

Pancreas–Glucagon

Answer: C (Testis–Testosterone)

Q. Sertoli cells are found in testis, these cells are

Nurse cells

Reproductive cells

Receptor cells

None of these

Answer: A (Nurse cells)

Q. Rete testis opens to

Urethra

Vasa efferentia

Bidder’s canal

Cauda epididymis

Answer: B (Vasa efferentia)

Q. Which gland in mammal makes alkaline secretion for lubrication?

Testis

Pineal body

Prostate gland

Cowper’s gland

Answer: D (Cowper’s gland)

Q. Seminal fluid has a pH of about

6.0

7.4

8.5

9.0

Answer: B (7.4)

Q. Which one is unpaired gland in male reproductive system?

Seminal vesicle

Cowper’s gland

Prostate gland

Lacrimal gland

Answer: C (Prostate gland)

Q. Which of the following sugars in semen is a source of energy for the spermatozoa?

Sucrose

Fructose

Glucose

Galactose

Answer: B (Fructose)

Q. Graafian follicle possess:

Theca externa

Granulosa

Theca interna

All of these

Answer: D (All of these)

Q. The release of mature ovum from Graafian follicle is known as

Oogenesis

Oviparity

Ovulation

Oviposition

Answer: C (Ovulation)

Q. 28: When is progesterone secreted?

After ovulation

After parturition

Before ovulation

At the time of parturition

Answer: A (After ovulation)

Q. Labia majora of a female mammal is homologous to

Scrotal sac

Epididymis

Prostate gland

Seminal vesicle

Answer: A (scrotal sac)

Q. Number of spermatozoa produced by a single primary spermatocyte during spermatogenesis is

One

Two

Four

Eight

Answer: C (Four)

Q. The head of sperm consists of

Nucleus

Acrosome

Mitochondria

Acrosome and nucleus

Answer: D (Acrosome and nucleus)

Q. The lytic enzyme released by sperm is

Ligase

Acrosome

Androgamone

Hyaluronidase

Answer: D (Hyaluronidase)

Q. Oogenesis comprises

Maturation phase

Growth phase

Multiplication phase

All of these

Answer: D (All of these)

Q. First polar body is formed at which stage of oogenesis

First meiosis

Second mitosis

First mitosis

Differentiation

Answer: A (First meiosis)

Q. In which phase of cell division is oocyte arrested

Interphase

Prophase I

Anaphase II

Both Prophase I and II

Answer: B (Prophase I)

Q. Which one of the following is haploid?

Oogonia

Primary oocyte

Secondary oocyte

Primary spermatocyte

Answer: C (Secondary oocyte)

 Q. 46: In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of

LH only

FSH only

Combination of FSH and LH

Combination of estrogen and progesterone

Answer: D (Combination of estrogen and progesterone)

Q. Which of the following hormones is active during proliferative phase of menstrual cycle?

Estrogen

Progesterone

Testosterone

All of these

Answer: A (Estrogen)

Q. Ovulation in females is under the control of

LTH

ADH and LH

FSH and LH

LTH and TSH

Answer: C (FSH and LH)

Q. Shortest phase in the menstruation cycle of women is:

Menses

Luteal phase

Follicular phase

Ovulatory phase

Answer: D (Ovulatory phase)

Q. Which hormone level reaches peak during luteal phase of menstrual cycle?

Estrogen

Progesterone

Luteinizing hormone

Follicle stimulating hormone

Answer: B ( Progesterone)

Q. Cessation of menstrual cycle is termed as

Menarche

Menopause

Impotency

None of these

Answer: B (Menopause)

Q. Maturation of sperm before penetration of ovum is called

Ovulation

Spermatid

Capacitation

None of these

Answer: C (Capacitation)

Q. Fertilization of sperm and ovum takes place in

Ampulla of oviduct

Isthmus of oviduct

Fimbriae of oviduct

None of these

Answer: A (Ampulla of oviduct)

Q. The embryo at 16 – celled stage is known as

Morula

Gastrula

Blastula

Blastomere

Answer: A (Morula)

Q. Which germ layer develops first during embryonic development?

Ectoderm

Mesoderm

Endoderm

Both B and C

Answer: C (Endoderm)

Q. A mammalian blastula is called

Embryo

Blastocyst

Trophoderm

Blastomere

Answer: B (Blastocyst)

 Q. The attachment and development of embryo inside uterus is called

Gestation

Conception

Impregnation

Implantation

Answer: D (Implantation)

Q. First or free milk is called

Rostrum

Colostrum

Cholesterol

Babies milk

Answer: B (Colostrum)

Q. In human cleavage divisions are

Fast and synchronous

Slow and synchronous

Fast and asynchronous

Slow and asynchronous

Answer: D (Slow and asynchronous)

Q. Which one of the following is initiated by secretion of trophoblast?

Cleavage

Blastulation

Gastrulation

Implantation

Answer: D (Implantation)

Q. Reproductive health is the well – being of?

Physical aspects

Emotional and behavioural aspects

Social aspects

All of the above

Answer: D (All of the above)

Q. Indicators of the improved reproductive health of the society are?

Better detection and cure of STDs

Improved medical facilities

Decreased maternal and infant mortality rates

All the above

Answer: D (All of the above)

Q. An ideal contraceptive should be?

User friendly

Reversible

Both A and B

Increase sexual drive

Answer: C (Both A and B)

Q. Natural methods of contraception are the natural ways to?

Increase spermicidal activity

Prevent fertilisation

Decrease mortality

Increase mortality

Answer: B (Prevent fertilisation)

Q. F1 – progeny of a cross between pure tall and dwarf plant is always

Tall

Short

Intermediate

None of these

Answer: A (Tall)

Q. How did Mendel obtained recessive character in F2-generation?

By self-pollinating F1

By self-pollinating F2

By cross-pollinating F1

By cross-pollinating F2

Answer: A (By self-pollinating F1)

Q. Both phenotypic and genotypic ratio are same in F2 generation in

Co – dominance

Incomplete dominance

Out – cross

More than one option is correct

Answer: D (More than one option is correct)

Q. Theoretically in incomplete dominance one allele functions as normal, while another allele may function as

Normal allele

Non – functional allele

Normal but less efficient allele

All the above

Answer: D (All of the above)

Q. In a red and white flowered cross of mirabilis Jalapa F2 generation has red, pink, and white flowered plants in the ratio of

2: 1: 1

1: 1: 2

1: 2: 1

1: 0: 1

Answer: A (2: 1: 1)

Q. Which mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?

Incomplete dominance

Law of dominance

Inheritance of one gene

Codominance

Answer: D (Codominance)

Q. The character that is expressed in the F1 – generation is called the

Recessive character

Dominant character

Codominant character

None of these

Answer: B (Dominant character)

Q. If the genotype of an individual consists of only one type of genes at same locus. It is called

Homozygous

Heterozygous

Monoallelic

Uniallelic

Answer: A (Homozygous)

Q. A cross in which parents differ in a single pair of contrasting character is called

Monohybrid cross

Dihybrid cross

Trihybrid cross

Tetra hybrid cross

Answer: A (Monohybrid cross)

Q. The genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross in F2 – generation is

3: 1

1: 2: 1

2: 1: 1

9: 3: 3: 1

Answer: B (1: 2: 1)

Q. Graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotype of an offspring in genetic cross is called

Bunett square

Punnet square

Morgan square

Mendel square

Answer: B (Punnet square)

Q. The allele which expresses itself in both homozygous and heterozygous condition is called

Dominant allele

Recessive allele

Incomplete dominant allele

Split allele

Answer: A (Dominant allele)

Q. When there are more than two allele controlling the same character. These are called

Many alleles

Polyalleles

Multiple alleles

All of these

Answer: C (Multiple alleles)

Q. Starch synthesis gene in pea plant in heterozygous condition produces starch grain of intermediate size this shows

Complete dominance

Incomplete dominance

Codominance

None of these

Answer: B (Incomplete dominance)

Q. Which process was used to study the independent assortment?

Monohybrid cross

Dihybrid cross

Trihybrid cross

Tetra hybrid cross

Answer: B (Dihybrid cross)

Q. Ratio observed in dihybrid cross (phenotypically)

3: 1

1: 2: 1

9: 7

9: 3: 3: 1

Answer: D (9: 3: 3: 1)

Q. Multiple alleles control the character of

Only skin colour

Only blood group

Blood groups and skin colour

Sickle cell

Answer: B (Only blood group)

Q. Who proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance?

Sutton and Mendel

Boveri and Morgan

Morgan and Mendel

Sutton and Boveri

Answer: D (Sutton and Boveri)

Q. 37: Morgan worked with any fruit fly named as

Drosophila melanogaster

Magnifiera Indica

Mirabilis jalapa

Drosophila Indica

Answer: A (Drosophila melanogaster)

Q. How many linkage groups are present in human male?

24

23

46

22

Answer: A (24)

Q. In which state crossing over takes place?

Leptotene

Cytokinesis

Pachytene

Diakinesis

Answer: C (Pachytene)

Q. Linkage reduce the frequency of

Hybrids

All parental types

Homozygous recessive parents

Heterozygous recessive parents

Answer: A (Hybrids)

 Q. Experimental evidences of chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by

HT Morgan

TH Morgan

Hugo de Vries

De Vries

Answer: B (TH Morgan)

Q. Linkage groups are always present on the

Homologous chromosomes

Analogous chromosomes

Sex chromosomes

Heterologous chromosomes

Answer: A (Homologous chromosomes)

Q. Which of the following will not result in variation among siblings?

Independent assortment of genes

Crossing over

Linkage

Mutation

Answer: C (Linkage)

Q. Polyploidy wheat does not normally show and increase in

Size

Vigour

Resistance to disease

Length of life cycle

Answer: D (Length of life cycle)

Q. Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows

A direct relationship

An inverse relationship

A parallel relationship

No relationship

Answer: A (A direct relationship)

Q. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is

Autosomal dominant

Autosomal recessive

Sex – linked dominant

Sex – linked recessive

Answer: D (Sex – linked recessive)

Q. The length of DNA usually depends on nucleotides

Position of nucleotides

Number of nucleotides

Both A and B

None of the above

Answer: B (Number of nucleotides)

Q. What is the difference between adenosine and deoxyadenosine?

Only sugar

Only purine

Only phosphate

All of these

Answer: A (Only sugar)

Q. Backbone of DNA is formed by

Sugar

Phosphates

Both A and B

Nitrogenous bases (purine and pyrimidine)

Answer: C (Both A and B)

Q. In some viruses, the flow of information is in reverse direction, i.e. from RNA to DNA. Can you suggest a simple name to the process?

Transcription

Transception

Reverse transcription

Translation

Answer: C (Reverse transcription)

Q. Positively charged basic proteins that are found in eukaryotes are called

Histones

Protamine

Arginine

Lysine

Answer: A (Histones)

Q. Lightly stained part of chromatin which remains loosely packed and its transcriptionally active named as

Euchromatin

Heterochromatin

Chromatosome

Chromonemata

Answer: A (Euchromatin)

Q. Hershey and Chase concluded that viral infecting agent in their experiment was

Protein

DNA

RNA

Both B and C

Answer: B (DNA)

Q. RNA is the genetic material in

All bacteria

Tobacco Mosaic Viruses (TMV)

QB bacteriophage

Both B and C

Answer: D (Both B and C)

Q. DNA replication is semiconservative. It was first shown in

Fungi

Bacteria

Vicia faba

Algae

Answer: B (Bacteria)

Q. Radioisotope used by Taylor in his experiment was

Iron

Titanium

Thymidine

Copper

Answer: C (Thymidine)

Q. DNA polymerase is

DNA dependent

DNA independent

RNA dependent

RNA independent

Answer: A (DNA dependent)

Q. DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the

Template strand

Coding strand

Alpha strand

Anti – strand

Answer: A (Template strand)

Q. Which mutation of the genetic bases gives the proof that codon is triplet and reads in a contagious manner?

Frameshift mutation

Point mutation

Both A and B

Inversion mutation

Answer: A (Frameshift mutation)

Q. tRNA is a compact molecule which looks like

M – shaped

P – shaped

L – shaped

K – shaped

Answer: C (L – shaped)

 Q. The accessibility of the promoter regions of prokaryotic DNA is (in many cases) regulated by the interaction of proteins with the sequences termed as

Regulator

Promoter

Operator

Structural genes

Answer: C (Operator)

Q. An operon is considered to regulate a unit

Translational unit

Genetic unit

Protein unit

Enzymatic unit

Answer: B (Genetic unit)

Q. Lactose is transported into cells through

B-galactosidase

Permease

Transacetylase

Transferase

Answer: B (Permease)

 Q. Repressor proteins of lac operon binds to

Exons

Introns

Operator

Structural genes

Answer: C (Operator)

Q. SNPs can be used for

Finding chromosome locations for disease associated sequences

Tracing human history

Evolution

All of the above

Answer: D (All of the above)

Q. Satellite DNA or repetitive DNA

Do not code for any protein

Forms a large portion of human genome

Shows high degree of polymorphism

All the above

Answer: D (All of the above)

Q. VNTR belongs to the class of satellite DNA referred to as

Microsatellite DNA

Minisatellite DNA

Megasatellite DNA

Repititive DNA

Answer: B (Minisatellite DNA)

Q. The first genetic material could be

Protein

Carbohydrates

DNA

RNA

Answer: D (RNA)

Q. Which one of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase?

Initiation

Elongation

Termination

All of these

Answer: C (Termination)

Q. Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced?

Chromosome 1

Chromosome 11

Chromosome 21

Chromosome – X

Answer: A (Chromosome 1)

Q. The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively

Chromosome 21 and Y

Chromosome 1 and X

Chromosome 1 and Y

Chromosome X and Y

Answer:  C (Chromosome 1 and Y)