Q. What type of solid is SiC?

Covalent or network solid

Metallic solid

Ionic solid

Molecular solid

Answer: A (Covalent or network solid)

Q. Name one solid which has both Schottky and Frenkel defects.

Silver Chloride

Silver Bromide

Cesium Chloride

Zince Blende

Answer: B (Silver bromide)

Q. What is the coordination number of an octahedral void?

Four

Eight

Six

None of these

Answer: C (Six)

Q. What type of interaction hold the molecules together in a polar molecular solid?

Van der Waals force

Hydrogen Bonding

Columbic Force

Dipole – dipole interaction

Answer: D (Dipole- dipole interaction)

Q. In a crystal of zinc sulphide, zinc occupies tetrahedral voids. What is the coordination number of zinc?

Four

Six

Eight

None of these

Answer: A (Four)

Q. Name the type of point defect that occurs in a crystal of zinc sulphide.

Schottky defect

Vacancy defect

Frenkel defect

Metal deficiency defect

Answer: C (Frenkel defect)

Q. Which point defect in crystals of a solid does not change the density of the solid?

Frenkel defect

Vacancy defect

Schottky defect

Metal deficiency defect

Answer: A (Frenkel defect)

Q. What is the cause of electrical conductivity in metals?

Due to flow of electrons

Due to flow of ion in solution  

Due to presence of impurities and defects

None of these

Answer: A (Due to flow of electrons)

Q. What is the percentage of empty space in a body centred cubic arrangement?

54 %

68 %

32%

74 %

Answer: C (32 %)

Q. If the radius of an octahedral void is r and radius of atom in close packing is R, the relation between r and R is

r = 0.732 R

r = 0.414 R

r = 0.225 R

None of these

Answer: B (r = 0.414 R)

Q. Solid X is a very hard solid which is electrical insulator in solid as well as in molten state and has extremely high boiling point.  What type of solid is it?

Ionic Solid

Metallic Solid

Molecular Solid

Covalent solid

Answer: D (Covalent solid)

Q. What type of substance would make better permanent magnets

Ferromagnetic

Ferrimagnetic

Anti- ferrimagnetic

Paramagnetic

Answer: A (Ferromagnetic)

Q. What is two dimensional coordination number of a molecule in square close- packed structure?

4

6

12

8

Answer: A (4)

Q. How does the electrical conductivity of semiconductors vary with temperature?

Decreases

Increases

Remain unchanged

None of these

Answer: B (Increases)

Q. How does the electrical conductivity of metallic conductors vary with temperature?

Remain Unchanged

Increases

Decreases

None of these

Answer: C (Decreases)

Q. Which of the following does not represent a crystal system?

Triclinic

Monoclinic

Rhombohedral

Isotropical

Answer: C (Isotropical)

Q. To get n type semiconductor, germanium should be doped with

Gallium

Arsenic

Aluminium

Boron

Answer:  B (Arsenic)

Q. Silver halides generally show

Schottky defect

Frenkel defect

Both Frenkel and Schottky defect

Cation excess defect

Answer: C (Both Frenkel and Schottky defect)

Q. Which of the following will have metal deficiency defect?

NaCl

FeO

KCl

ZnO

Answer: B (FeO)

Q. Pure silicon and germanium behave as

Conductors

Semiconductors

Insulators

Piezoelectric crystals

Answer: C (Insulators)

Q. Which of the following crystals does not exhibit Frenkel defect?

AgBr

AgCl

KBr

ZnS

Answer: C (KBr)

Q. An electron trapped in an anionic site in a crystal is called

F-centre

Frenkel defect

Schottky defect

interstitial defect

Answer: A (F-centre)

Q. The edge length of fcc cell is 508 pm. If radius of cation is 110 pm, the radius of anion is

110 pm

220 pm

285 pm

144 pm

Answer: D (144 pm)

Q. Brass is

Solid Solution

Liquid Solution

Gas solution

All of these

Answer: A (Solid Solution)

Q. Which of the following is an example of solid in gas solution?

Humidity in air

Iodine vapour in air

Alloys

Air

Answer: B (Iodine vapour in air)

Q. Write the relation between normality and molarity of a given solution of H2SO4 ?

Normality = 2 x Molarity

Molarity = 2 x Normality

Normality = 3/4 Molarity

Molarity = 1/2 Normality

Answer: A (Normality = 2 x Molarity)

Q. What is sum of mole fraction of all the components in a three component system?

 x1 + x2 + x3 = 2

x1 + x2 + x3 = 1

x1 + x2 = 1

x1 + x3 = 1

Answer: B  (x1 + x2 + x3 = 1 )

Q. At equilibrium the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is..

zero

less than the rate of crystallisation

equal to the rate of crystallisation

greater than the rate of crystallisation

Answer: C (Equal to the rate of crystallisation)

Q. What do you mean by saying that molality of a solution is 0.1?

 0.1 mol of solute is dissolved in 1000kg of solvent

0.1 mol of solute is present in 100 ml of solution

0.1 mol of solute is dissolved in 1000g of solvent

None of these

Answer: C (0.1 mol of solute is dissolved in 1000 g of solvent)

Q. Which has the least freezing point?

1% Sucrose

1% NaCl

1% CaCl2

1% Glucose

Answer: C  (1% CaCl2 )

Q. Which of the following is not a colligative property?

Depression in freezing point

Osmotic Pressure

Elevation in boiling point

Increase in freezing point

Answer: D (Increase in freezing point)

Q. In which of the following condition reverse osmosis takes place?

E ext > Osmotic pressure

E ext = Osmotic pressure

E ext < Osmotic pressure

None of these

Answer: A (Eext > Osmotic Pressure)

Q. Molarity of a given Orthophosphoric acid solution is 3M. Its normality is

0.3 N

9 N

1 N

3 N

Answer: B (9 N)

Q. Two liquids A and B on mixing produce a warm solution. Which type of deviation from Raoult’s law does it show?

negative deviation.

positive deviation

Ideal solution

All of these

Answer: A (Negative deviation)

Q. A beaker contains a solution of substance A. Precipitation of substance A takes place when small amount of A is added to solution. The solution is ……..

Saturated

Unsaturated

Supersaturated

None of these

Answer: C (Supersaturated)

Q. Maximum amount of a solute that can be dissolved in a specified amount of given liquid solvent does not depend upon

 Pressure

Temperature

Nature of solute

Nature of solvent

Answer: A (Pressure)

Q. What happens when blood cells are placed in pure water?

blood cells shrink

blood cells swell and may even burst.

Both of these

None of these

Answer: B (Blood cells swell and may even burst)

Q. Which one has a lowest freezing point?

2 M glucose solution

1.5 M glucose solution

1 M glucose solution

All of these

Answer: A (2 M glucose solution)

Q. Isotonic solutions are solutions having the same

Vapour pressure

Surface tension

Osmotic pressure

Viscosity

Answer: C (Osmotic Pressure)

Q. How is the colligative property of solution changed when a solute in solution undergoes association

Increases

Remain same

Become twice

Decreases

Answer: D (Decreases)

Q. The value of Henry’s constant is…..

greater for gases with higher solubility

greater for gases with lower solubility

constant for all gases

not related to the solubility of gases

Answer: B (Greater for gases with lower solubility)

Q. Vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution of glucose is 750 mm of mercury at 373 K. The mole fraction of solute is

1 / 76

1 / 7.6

1 / 38

1 / 10

Answer: A (1 / 76)    

Q. The osmotic pressure of 0.1 M aqueous solution of NaCl is …… osmotic pressure of 0.1 M aqueous solution of glucose

equal to

less than

half of

nearly double

Answer: D (Nearly double)

Q. Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solution is likely to have the highest boiling point?

Na2SO4

KCl

Glucose

Urea

Answer: A (Na2SO4)

Q. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause

decrease in molality

decrease in molarity

decrease in mole fraction

decrease in % w/w

Answer: B  (Decrease in molarity )

Q. Van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M ideal solution is

0.1

1

-0.01

none of these

Answer: B (1)

Q. Which of the following will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law?

Acetone – benzene

Acetone – ethanol

Benzene – methanol

Acetone – chloroform

Answer: D (Acetone – chloroform)

Q. A standard hydrogen electrode has a zero potential because

Hydrogen can be most easily oxidised

Hydrogen has only one electron

The electrode potential is assumed to be zero

Hydrogen is the lightest element

Answer: C (The electrode potential is assumed to be zero)

Q. Fluorine is the best oxidising agent because it has

Hydrogen electron affinity

Highest reduction potential

Highest oxidation potential

Lowest electron affinity

Answer: B (Highest reduction potential)

Q. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of concentration

0.004 M  

0.002 M

0.005 M

0.001 M

Answer: D (0.001 M)

Q. If 54 g of silver is deposited during an electrolysis reaction, how much aluminium will be deposited by the same amount of electric current?

2.7 g

4.5 g

27 g

5.4 g

Answer: B (4.5 g)

Q. How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce 100 g of Ca from molten CaCl2 ?

1 F

 2 F

3 F

5 F

Answer: D (5 F)

Q. When a lead storage battery is discharged,

lead sulphate is consumed

oxygen gas is evolved

lead sulphate is formed

lead sulphide is formed

Answer: C (lead sulphate is formed)

Q. The amount of chlorine evolved by passing 2 A of current in an aqueous solution of NaCl for 30 minute is

2.64 g

1.32 g

3.62 g

4.22 g

Answer: B (1.32 g)

Q. Which of the following is not a non-electrolyte?

Acetic acid

Glucose

Ethanol

Urea

Answer: A (Acetic Acid)

Q. In electrolysis of dilute H2SO4, what is liberated at anode?

H2

SO4 2-

SO2

O2

Answer: D (O2)

Q. The time required to liberate one gram equivalent of an element by passing one ampere current through its solution is

6.7 hrs

13.4 hrs

19.9 hrs

26.8 hrs

Answer: D (26.8 hrs)

Q. The difference between the electrode potentials of two electrodes when no current is drawn through the cell is called….

Cell potential

Cell emf

Potential difference

Cell voltage

Answer: B (cell emf)

Q. How does concentration of reaction change with time for a chemical reaction?

Increases

Remain Unchanged

Decreases

Becomes twice

Answer: C (Decreases)

Q. The rate constant of a reaction is 3 x 10 2 min -1 . What is the order of the reaction?

First

Second

Third

Zero

Answer: A (First)

Q. A reaction in which reactants are converted into products follows second order kinetics. If concentration of R is increases by four times, what will be the increase in rate of formation of P?

9 times

4 times

16 times

8 times

Answer: C (16 times)

Q. A reaction is of second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction affected, if the concentration of reaction is reduced to half?

4 times

1/4 times

16 times

Remain unchanged

Answer: B (1/4 times)

Q. For a chemical reaction , R→P, the variation in concentration of R with time pot is given as below, predict the order of reaction?

Zero order

First order

Second order

Insufficient information

Answer: A  (zero order)

Q. Half life period of a first order reaction is 10 min. What percentage of the reaction will be completed in 100 min?

25%

50%

99.9%

75%

Answer: C  (99.9%)

Q. Threshold energy is equal to

Activation energy

Activation energy – energy of molecules

Activation energy + energy of molecules

None of these

Answer: C (Activation energy + energy of molecules)

Q. The unit of rate and rate constant are same for a

Zero order reaction

First order reaction

Second order reaction

Third order reaction

Answer: A (Zero order reaction)

Q. The number of molecules of the reactants taking place in a single step of the reaction is indicative of

Order of reaction

Molecularity of reaction

Fast step of the mechanism of reaction

Half-life of the reaction

Answer: B (molecularity of reaction)

Q. For a reaction X → Y, the rate of reaction becomes twenty seven times when the concentration of X is increases three times. What is order of the reaction?

2

1

3

0

Answer: C (3)

Q. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon

Temperature of the reaction

Extent of the reaction

Initial concentration of the reactants

The time of completion of reaction

Answer: A (Temperature of the reaction)

Q. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction….

Increases

Decreases

Remains unchanged

May increase or decrease

Answer: C (Remains unchanged)

Q. The increase in concentration of the reactants lead to change in

ΔH

Collision frequency

Activation energy

Equilibrium constant

Answer: B (Collision frequency)

Q. The chemical reaction in which reactant require high amount of activation energy are generally

Slow

Fast

Instantaneous

None of these

Answer: A  (Slow)

Q. Collision theory is applicable to

First order reactions

Zero order reactions

Bimolecular reactions

Intramolecular reactions

Answer: C (Bimolecular reactions)

Q. What type of interface cannot be obtained?

Gas – Gas

Solid – liquid

Liquid – Gas

Liquid – Liquid

Answer: A (Gas – Gas)

Q. Name the process by which freshly prepared precipitate gets converted to colloidal solution?

Coagulation

Electrolysis

Diffusion

Peptisation

Answer: D (Peptisation)

Q. The incorrect statement about physical adsorption is

It lacks specificity

It is generally reversible

Porous surfaces are good adsorbent

Heat of adsorption is quite high

Answer: D (Heat of adsorption is quite high)

Q. Fog is an example of colloid system of

Liquid in gas

Gas in liquid

Solid in gas

Gas in solid

Answer: A (Liquid in gas)

Q. Shape selective catalysis is a reaction catalysed by

Zeolites

Enzymes

Platinum

Ziegler Natta catalyst

Answer: A (Zeolites)

Q. The activity of an enzyme becomes ineffective

At low temperature

At atmospheric pressure

At high temperature

In aqueous medium

Answer: C (At high temperature)

Q. A colloidal system in which liquid is dispersed phase and solid is dispersion medium is classified as

Gel

Sol

Emulsion

Aerosol

Answer: A (Gel)

Q. Substances which behave as normal electrolytes in solution at low concentration and exhibit colloidal properties at higher concentration are called

Lyophilic colloids

Lyophobic colloids

Macromolecular colloids

Associated colloids

Answer: D (Associated colloids)

Q. Which of the following examples is correctly matched?

Butter – gel

Smoke – emulsion

Paint – foam

Milk – aerosol

Answer: A (Butter – gel)

Q. The formation of micelles takes place only above

Critical temperature

Kraft temperature

Inversion temperature

Absolute temperature

Answer: B (Kraft temperature)

Q. Soap mixed with water below critical micelle concentration behave as

Associated colloid

Macromolecular colloid

Normal electrolytic solution

Multimolecular colloid

Answer: C (Normal electrolytic solution)

Q. Tyndall effect is not observed in

Smoke

Emulsions

Sugar solution

Gold sol

Answer: C (Sugar solution)

Q. Which of the following is not a method of removing impurities from a colloidal sol?

Electrodialysis

Ultrafiltration

Ultracentrifugation

Distillation

Answer: D (Distillation)

Q. Movement of the dispersion medium under the influence of electric field is known as

Electrodialysis

Electrophoresis

Electro osmosis

Cataphoresis

Answer: C (Electro osmosis)

Q. At CMC, the surface molecules

Dissociate

Associate

Become bigger in size due to adsorption

Become smaller in size due to decomposition

Answer: B  (Associate)

Q. The separation of an emulsion into its constituent liquids is known as

Emulsification

Protection of colloid

Coagulation

Demulsification

Answer: D (demulsification)

Q. Which of the following is not an example of an emulsifying agent?

Proteins

Gums

Soaps

Electrolytes

Answer: D (Electrolytes)

Q. What happens when a lyophilic sol is added to a lyophobic sol?

Lyophilic sol is protected

Lyophobic sol is protected

Both the sols are coagulated

Electrophoresis takes place

Answer: B (Lyophobic sol is protected)

Q. The term ‘sorption’ stands for

Adsorption

Absorption

Both adsorption and absorption

Desorption

Answer:C (Both adsorption and absorption)

Q. The emulsifying agent present in milk that makes it stable is

Lactose

Maltose

Casein

Lactic bacilli

Answer:C (casein)

Q. Paints and hair creams are respectively

Sol and emulsion

Aerosol and foam

Emulsion and sol

Foam and gel

Answer: A (Sol and emulsion)

Q. Which of the following is not an oxide ore?

Corundum

Zincite

Calamine

Chromite

Answer: C (Calamite)

Q. Which one of the following is not a sulphide ore?

Galena

Iron pyrites

Magnetite

Copper glance

Answer: C (Magnetite)

Q. Which of the following ores cannot be concentrated by magnetic separation?

Haematite

Malachite

Magnetite

Siderite

Answer: B (Malachite)

Q. Sulphide ore of zinc/ copper is concentrated by

Floatation process

Electromagnetic process

Gravity separation

Distillation

Answer: A (floatation process)

Q.  Which of the following metals is not extracted by leaching?

Aluminium

Mercury

Silver

Gold

Answer: B (Mercury)

Q. Heating pyrites to remove sulphur is called

Smelting

Calcination

Liquation

Roasting

Answer:D (Roasting)

Q. Which of the following metal is extracted using a silica lined convertor?

Mg

Al

Cu  

Zn

Answer: C (Cu)

Q. During the extraction of haematite, limestone is added which acts as

Flux

Slag

Reducing agent

Gangue 

Answer: A (flux)

Q. In metallurgical process, aluminium acts as

An oxidising agent

A reducing agent

Acidic flux

Basic flux

Answer:  B (A reducing agent)

Q. Which of the following metals cannot be obtained by reduction of its metal oxide by aluminium?

Cr

Mn

Fe

Mg

Answer: D (Mg)

Q. Extraction of chlorine from brine is based on

Reduction

Displacement

Oxidation

Evaporation

Answer: C (Oxidation)

Q. In electro-refining of copper, some gold is deposited as

Cathode mud

Electrolyte

Anode mud

Cathode

Answer: C (Anode mud)

Q. In blast furnace iron oxide is reduced by

Silica

Carbon monoxide

Carbon

Lime stone

Answer: B (Carbon monoxide)

Q. Blister copper is

Impure copper

Obtained by self-reduction process during bessemerisation

Both are correct

None are correct

Answer: C (Both are correct)

Q. Which of the following metal is obtained by electrolytic reduction process?

Fe

Cu

Ag

Al

Answer: D (Al)

Q. Which of the following is the purest commercial form of iron?

Cast iron

Steel

Wrought iron

Pig iron

Answer:  C (Wrought iron)

Q. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method?

Ni and Fe

Ga and In

Zr and Ti

Ag and Au

Answer: C (Zr and Ti )

Q. The temperature of the slag zone in the metallurgy of iron using blast furnace is

1500 – 1600ºC

400 – 700ºC

800 – 1000º C

1200 – 1500ºC

Answer: C (800 – 1000º C)

Q. During smelting, an additional substance is added which combines with impurities to form a fusible mass. The additional substance is called

Flux

Slag

Gangue

Ore

Answer: A (flux)

Q. Mond’s process is used for refining of

Ni

Ag

Sn

Al

Answer: A (Ni)

Q. Chromatography is a useful method for purification of elements which are

Very reactive

Available in minute quantities

Present in abundance

Highly electropositive

Answer: B (Available in minute quantities)

Q. Nitrogen is used to fill electric bulbs because

It is lighter than air

It makes the bulb to glow

It does not support combustion

It is non-toxic

Answer: C (It does not support combustion)

Q. Which oxide of nitrogen is obtained on heating ammonium nitrate at 250º C?

N2O3

NO2

NO

N2O4

Answer: B (NO2)

Q. Which of the following factor would favour the formation of ammonia in Haber’s process?

High pressure

Low temperature

High volume

Low pressure

Answer: A (High pressure)

Q. Atomicity of Phosphorous is

One

Two

Three

Four

Answer: D (Four)

Q. The bleaching of chlorine is due to the liberation of the following

HOCl

HCl

[ O ]

O2

Answer: C [O]

Q. Maximum covalency of nitrogen is…..

3

5

4

6

Answer: C (4)

Q. Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ—dπ bonding?

Carbon

Phosphorous

Nitrogen

Boron

Answer: B (Phosphorous)

Q. Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?

Nitrogen

Bismuth

Antimony

Arsenic

Answer: B (Bismuth)

Q. If Chlorine is passed through a solution of hydrogen sulphide in water, the solution turns turbid due to the formation of

Free chlorine

Free sulphur

Nascent oxygen

Nascent hydrogen

Answer: B (Free sulphur )

Q. Sulphur molecule is

Diatomic

Triatomic

Tetratomic

Octa – atomic

Answer: D (Octa – atomic)

Q. Fluorine is the best oxidising agent because it has

Highest electron affinity

Highest reduction potential

Highest oxidation potential

Lowest electron affinity

Answer: B (Highest reduction potential)

Q. Which of the following is a tetrabasic acid?

Hypophosphorous acid

Metaphosphoric acid

Pyrophosphoric acid

Orthophosphoric acid

Answer: C (Pyrophosphoric acid)

Q. Due to lanthanoid contraction which of the following properties is not expected to be similar in the same vertical columns of second and third transition elements?

Atomic radii

Ionisation energies

Magnetic moments

Lattice energies

Answer: C (Magnetic Moments)

Q. Zr and Hf have almost equal atomic and ionic radii because of

Diagonal relationship

Lanthanoid contraction

Actinoid Contraction

Belonging to the same group

Answer: B ( Lanthanoid Contraction)

Q. The magnetic moment of a divalent ion in aqueous solution with atomic number 25 is

5.9 B.M.

2.9 B.M.

6.9 B.M.

9.9 B.M.

Answer: A ( 5.9 B.M.)

Q. Which of the following transition metal ion is colourless?

V 2+

Cr 3+

Zn 2+

Ti 3+

Answer: C (Zn 2+)

Q. In which of the following compounds manganese has oxidation number equal to that of iodine in KIO4 ?

Potassium manganate

Potassium permanganate

Dimanganese decarbonyl

Manganese chloride

Answer: B (Potassium permanganate)

Q. Colour of transition metal are due to absorption of some wavelength. This results in

d-s transition

s-s transition

s-d transition

d-d transition

Answer: D (d-d transition)

Q. The most common lanthanoid is

Lanthanum

Cerium

Samarium

Plutonium

Answer: B (Cerium)

Q. Lanthanoid contraction is due to increase in

Atomic number

Effective nuclear charge

Atomic radius

Valence electrons

Answer: B (Effective nuclear charge)

Q. The common oxidation state shown by Europium in their compounds is

+1

+3

+5

+6

Answer: B (+3)

Q. Lanthanides and actinides resemble in

Electronic configuration

Oxidation state

Ionisation energy

Formation of complexes

Answer: A (Electronic Configuration)

Q. Which of the following lanthanide ion is paramagnetic?

Ce 4+

Yb 2+

Lu 3+

Eu 2+

Answer: D (Eu 2+ )

Q. Which of the following ligands form a chelate?

Acetate

Oxalate

Cyanide

Ammonia

Answer: B (Oxalate)

Q. According to Werner’s theory of coordination compounds

Primary valency is ionisable

Secondary valency is ionisable

Primary and secondary valencies are ionisable

Neither primary nor secondary valency is ionisable

Answer: A (Primary valency is ionisable)

Q. An example of ambidentate ligand is

Ammine

Aqua

Oxalato

Thiacyanato

Answer: D (Thiacyanato)

Q. The oxidation number of [Co(NH3)(NO2)3] is

+3

0

-3

+6

Answer: A (+3)

Q. The geometry possessed by [Ni(CO)4] is

Tetrahedral

Square planar

Linear

Octahedral

Answer: A (Tetrahedral)

Q. Which of the following will not show chelation?

EDTA

DMG

Ethane-1,2-diamine

SCN¯

Answer: D (SCN‾)

Q. The correct structure of Fe(CO)5 is

Octahedral

Tetrahedral

Square pyramidal

Trigonal bipyramidal

Answer: D (Trigonal bipyramidal)

Q. Bromination of methane in presence of sunlight is a

Nucleophilic substitution

Free radical substitution

Electrophic substitution

Nucleophilic addition

Answer: B (Free radical substitution)

Q. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by SN2 mechanism because

The carbocation formed is unstable.

There is steric hindrance

There is inductive effect

The rate of reaction is faster in SN2 mechanism

Answer: B (There is steric hindrance)

Q. Which of the following haloalkanes is most reactive?

1-Chloropropane

1-Bromopropane

2-Chloropropane

2-Bromopropane

Answer: D (2-Bromopropane)

Q. Which of the following haloalkanes reacts with aqueous KOH most easily?

1-Bromobutane

2-Bromobutane

2-Bromo-2-methylpropane

2-Chlorobutane

Answer: C (2-Bromo-2-methylpropane)

Q. A mixture of 1-chloropropane and 2-chloropropane when treated with alcoholic KOH gives

prop-1-ene

prop-2-ene

A mixture of prop-1-ene and prop-2-ene

propanol

Answer: A (prop-1-ene)

Q. Chlorobenzene on treatment with on treatment with sodium in dry ether gives diphenyl. The name of the reaction is

Fittig reaction

Wurtz Fittig reaction

Sandmeyer reaction

Gattermann reaction

Answer: A (Fittig Reaction )

Q. Which of the following is an example of vic-dihalide?

Dichloromethane

1,2-Dichloroethane

Ethylidene chloride

Allyl chloride

Answer: B (1,2-Dichloroethane)

Q. An organic halogen which is used as refrigerant in refrigerators and air conditioners is

BHC

CCl4

Freon

CHCl3

Answer: C (Freon)

Q. When ethyl iodide is heated with dry silver oxide, it forms

Ethyl alcohol

Diethyl ether

Silver ethoxide

Ethyl methyl ether

Answer: B (Diethyl ether)

Q. iso-propyl bromide on Wurtz reaction gives

Hexane

Propane

2,3-Dimethylbutane

Neo-hexane

Answer: C  (2,3-dimethylbutane)

Q. Which of the following compound will have highest melting point?

Chlorobenzene

o-Dichlorobenzene

m-Dichlorobenzene

p-Dichlorobenzene

Answer: D (p-Dichlorobenzene)

Q. The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by

Elimination

Dehydrohalogenation

Addition

Substitution

Answer: D (Substitution)

Q. Which of the following possess highest melting point?

Chlorobenzene

o-Dichlorobenzene

m-Dichlorobenzene

p-Dichlorobenzene

Answer: D (p- Dichlorobenzene)

Q. Which of the following event does not occur during SN2 reaction mechanism?

Back side attack of nucleophile

Formation of carbonium ion

One step continuous process

100 % inversion of configuration

Answer: B (Formation of carbonium ion)

Q. In which of the following case; halogen exchange reaction will occur?

R — I + NaCl

R — F + KCl

R — Cl + NaI

CH3—F + AgBr

Answer: C ( R — Cl + NaI )

Q. Ethyne can be formed from which of the following reactant in one step

Ethanol

Ethanal

Chloroform

Ethyl bromide

Answer: C (Chloroform)

Q. When Chlorobenzene is treated with sodium in presence of dry ether , it gives diphenyl. This reaction is commonly known as

Fittig Reaction

Wurtz Fittig Reaction

Sandmeyer reaction

Wurtz Reaction

Answer: A (Fittig reaction)

Q. Haloalkanes on treatment with AgOH underogoes hydrolysis to yield

Haloarenes

Alcohols

Aldehyde

Carboxylic Acids

Answer: B (Alcohols)

Q. Substitution nucleophilic unimolecular follows ….. order kinetics.

Second

Third

First

None of the above

Answer: C (First)

Q. Which of the following carbocation is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?

Tertiary

Secondary

Primary

Methyl

Answer: A (Tertiary)

Q. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride is called

Etard reaction

Riemer Tiemann reaction

Wurtz reaction

Cannizzaro reaction

Answer: A (Etard reaction)

Q. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives benzaldehyde as one of the products. This confirms the presence of

Two ethylenic double bond

A vinyl group

An isopropyl group

An acetylenic triple bond 

Answer: B (A Vinyl group)

Q. The addition of HCN to carbonyl compound is an example of

Nucleophilic addition

Electrophilic addition

Free radical addition

Elimination addition

Answer: A (Nucleophilic addition)

Q. Aldehydes other than formaldehyde react with grignard reagent to give addition product which on hydrolysis give

Tertiary alcohols

Secondary alcohols

Primary alcohols

Carboxylic acids

Answer: B (Secondary alcohols)

Q. Hydrocarbons are formed when aldehydes and ketones are reacted with amalgamated zinc and conc. HCl . This reaction is called

Cannizaro reaction

Clemmensen reaction

Rosenmund reduction

Wolff Kishner reduction

Answer: B ( Clemmensen reaction)

Q. Which of the following can be used to distinguish aldehydes and ketones?

Fehling’s solution

H2SO4 solution

NaHSO3

NH3

Answer: A (Fehling’s solution)

Q. When propanol reacts with 2-methylpropanal in presence of NaOH, four different products are formed. This reaction is known as

Aldol condensation

Cross aldol condensation

Cannizzaro reaction

HVZ Condensation

Answer:  B (Cross aldol condensation)

Q. Carboxylic acids dimerise due to

High molecular weighet

Coordinate bonding

Intermolecular hydrogen bonding

Covalent bonding

Answer: C (Intermolecular hydrogen bonding)

Q. Which of the following carboxylic acids is highly insoluble in water?

Propanoic acid

Butanoic acid

Pentanoic acid

Decanoic acid

Answer: D (Decanoic acid)

Q. What happens when carboxylic acid is treated with lithium aluminium hydride?

Aldehyde is formed

Primary alcohol is formed

Ketone is formed

Grignard reagent is formed

Answer:  B (Primary alcohol is formed)

Q. The reagent which does not react with both acetone and benzaldehyde is

Sodium hydrogensulphite

Phenyl hydrazine

Fehling’s solution

Grignard reagent

Answer: C (Fehling’s solution)

Q.Which of the following will not undergo HVZ reaction?

Propanoic acid

Ethanoic acid

2-Methylpropanoic acid

2,2-Dimethylpropanoic acid

Answer: D (2,2-Dimethylpropanoic acid)

Q. Methyl ketones are characterised through

Tollens’ reagent

Iodoform test

Schiff’s reagent

Fehling’s solution

Answer: B (Iodoform test)

Q. Which of the following compound will give butanone on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 solution?

Butan-1-ol

Butan-2-ol

Both of these

None of these

Answer: B (Butan-2-ol)

Q. Which of the following will not give aldol condensation?

Phenyl acetaldehyde

2-Methylpentanal

Benzaldehyde

1-Phenylpropanone

Answer: C (Benzaldehyde)

Q. Reduction of aromatic nitro compounds using Sn and HCl gives

Aromatic primary amines

Aromatic secondary amines

Aromatic tertiary amines

Aromatic amides

Answer: A ( Aromatic primary amines )

Q. Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is

Aniline

Benzyl amine

Methyl amine

Iso-butylamine

Answer: A (Aniline)

Q. Amides can be converted into amines by a reaction named after

Hoffmann

Claisen

Perkin

Kekule

Answer: A (Hoffmann)

Q. The coupling reaction of aryldiazonium chloride with aniline are carried out in

Strongly acidic medium

Strongly basic medium

Mild basic medium

Mild acidic medium

Answer: D (Mild acidic medium)

Q. When a primary amine reacts with chloroform and ethanolic KOH , then the product formed is

Isocyanide

Aldehyde

Cyanide

Alcohol

Answer: A (Isocyanide)

Q. Which of the following compounds will not undergo azo coupling reaction with benzene diazonium chloride?

Aniline

Phenol

Anisole

Nitrobenzene

Answer: D (Nitrobenzene)

Q. Primary, secondary and amines may be separated by using

Iodoform

Diethyloxalate

Benzenesulphonyl chloride

Acetyl chloride

Answer: C (Benzenesulphonyl chloride)

Q. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basic medium gives

diphenyl ether

p-hydroxyazobenzene

chlorobenzene

benzene

Answer: B (p-hydroxyazobenzene)

Q. Tertiary amines have lowest boiling points amongst isomeric amines because

They have highest molecular mass

They do not form hydrogen bonds

They are more polar in nature

They are most basic in nature

Answer: B (They do not form hydrogen bonds)

Q. Primary and secondary amines are distinguished by

Br2/KOH

HClO

HNO2

NH3 

Answer: C(HNO2) 

Q. Acid anhydride on reaction with primary amines give

Amide

Imide

Secondary amine

Imine

Answer: A (Amide)

Q. When aniline is heated with conc. H2SO4 at 455 – 475 K, it forms

Aniline hydrogensulphate

Sulphanilic acid

Amino benzene sulphonic acid

Benzenesulphonic acid

Answer: B (Sulphanilic acid)

Q. Cellulose is a

Hexapolysaccharide

Pentapolysaccharide

Tripolysaccharide

None of these

Answer: D (None of these)

Q. Which of the following is an example of aldopentose?

D-Ribose

Glyceraldehyde

Fructose

Erythrose

Answer: A (D-Ribose)

Q. Glycosidic linkage is an

Amide linkage

Ester linkage

Ether linkage

Acetyl linkage

Answer: C (Ether linkage)

Q. How many C atoms are there in a pyranose ring?

3

5

6

7

Answer: B (5)

Q. Starch is composed of two polysaccharides which are

Amyloceptin and Glycogen

Amylose and Glycogen

Amylose and Amyloceptin

Cellulose and Glycogen

Answer: C (Amylose and Amyloceptin)

Q. Which one of the amino acids can be synthesised in the body?

Alanine

Lysine

Valine

Histidine

Answer: A (Alanine)

Q. The number of amino acids required for protein synthesis is

20

25

10

100

Answer: A (20)

Q. In Fibrous proteins,  the polypeptide chains are held together by

Van der Waals forces

Electrostatic forces of attraction

Hydrogen bonds

Covalent bonds

Answer: C (Hydrogen bonds)

Q. Which of the following bases is not present in DNA ?

Adenine

Uracil

Thymine

Cytosine

Answer: B (Uracil)

Q. The two main differences between RNA and DNA are

Ribose sugar and thymine in RNA

Deoxyribose sugar and uracil in DNA

Ribose sugar and uracil in RNA

Deoxyribose sugar and guanine in DNA

Answer: C (Ribose sugar and uracil in RNA)

Q. A unit in nucleic acid which contains ‘base sugar phosphate’ unit is called

Nucleotide

Nucleoside

Phosphotide

Polypeptide

Answer: A (Nucleotide)

Q. Propanone on reaction with alkyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis will produce

Primary alcohol

Secondary alcohol

Tertiary alcohol

Carboxylic acid

Answer:  C (Tertiary alcohol)

Q. Vapours of alcohol X when passed over hot reduced copper, produce an alkene, the alcohol is

Primary alcohol

Secondary alcohol

Tertiary alcohol

Dihydric alcohol

Answer: C (Tertiary alcohol)

Q. Phenol when treated with excess of bromine water gives a white precipitate of

2,4,6-tribromophenol

o-bromophenol

p-bromophenol

bromobenzene

Answer: A (2,4,6-tribromophenol)

Q. Conversion of ethyl alcohol into acetaldehyde is an example of

Hydrolysis

Oxidation

Reduction

Molecular rearrangement

Answer: B (Oxidation)

Q. Phenol is less acidic than

Ethanol

o-Nitrophenol

o-Methylphenol

o-Methoxyphenol

Answer: B (o-nitrophenol)

Q. Which of the following is most acidic?

Benzyl alcohol

Cyclohexanol

Phenol

m-Chlorophenol

Answer: D (m-Chlorophenol)

Q. Boiling point of ethyl alcohol is greater than ether due to

Van der Waals forces

London forces

Polarity

Hydrogen bonding

Answer: D (Hydrogen bonding)

Q. When ethanol is heated with HI and red phosphorous, it gives

Ethyl iodide

Ethane

Ethylene

Ether

Answer: B (Ethane)

Q. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with

Ethanol

Methanol

2-Propanol

2-Methyl-2-propanol

Answer: D (2-Methyl-2-propanol)

Q. The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols involves

Addition reaction

Substitution reaction

Dehydrohalogenation reaction

Rearrangement reaction

Answer: B (Substitution reaction)

Q.  Glycogen is a naturally occurring polymer stored in animals is a

Monosaccharide

Disaccharide

Trisaccharide

Polysaccharide

Answer: D (Polysaccharide)

Q. Bakelite is an example of

Elastomer

Fibre

Thermoplastic

Thermosetting

Answer: D (Thermosetting)

Q. Which of the following is not true about high density polythene?

Tough

Hard

Inert

Highly branched

Answer: D (Highly branched)

Q. Polymer which has amide linkage is

Nylon-6,6

Terylene

Teflon

Bakelite

Answer: A (Nylon-6,6)

Q. The monomers of biodegradable polymer, nylon 2-nylon 6 are

Glycine + adipic acid

Glycol + phthalic acid

Phenol + urea

Glycine + amino caproic acid

Answer: D (Glycine + amino caproic acid)

Q. Which of the following statements is not true about low density polythene?

Tough

Hard

Poor conductor of electricity

Highly branched structure

Answer: B (Hard)

Q. Which of the following is not an example of rubber?

Polychloroprene

Buna-N

Butadiene- styrene copolymer

Polyacrylonitrile

Answer: D (Polyacrylonitrile)

Q. Teflon and neoprene are the examples of

Copolymers

Monomers

Homopolymers

Condensation polymers

Answer: C (Homopolymers)

Q. The S in buna-S refers to

Sulphur

Styrene

Sodium

Salicylate

Answer: B (Styrene)

Q. Terylene is condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and

Benzoic acid

Phthalic acid

Terephthalic acid

Salicylic acid

Answer: C (Terephthalic acid)

Q. Which of the following polymers does not involve cross-linkages?

Vulcanised rubber

Bakelite

Melamine

Teflon

Answer: D (Teflon)

Q. Heating rubber with sulphur is known as

Galvanisation

Bessemerisation

Vulcanisation

Sulphonation

Answer: C (Vulcanisation)

Q. Which of the following polymers does not have vinylic monomeric units?

Acrilan

Nylon

Polystyrene

Neoprene

Answer: B (Nylon)

Q. The chemical substance used to bring down body temperature in high fever are known as

Analgesics

Antipyretics

Antihistamines

Tranquilizers

Answer: B (Antipyretics)

Q. A drug which acts as antipyretic as well as analgesic is

Chloroquine

Penicillin

Chlorodiazepoxide

4-acetamidophenol

Answer: D (4-acetamidophenol)

Q. An artificial sweetener which is derivative of sucrose is

Saccharine

Sucralose

Sucrobenzamide

Aspartame

Answer: B (Sucralose)

Q. The main constituents of Dettol are

Chloramphenicol + glycerol

2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol

0.2% solution of phenol

Chloroxylenol and terpineol

Answer: D ( Chloroxylenol and terpineol )

Q. The antibiotic which is effective against certain strains of cancer cells is

Dysidazirine

Sulphanilamide

Vancomycin

Ofloxacin

Answer: A (Dysidazirine)

Q. An antioxidant which is added to butter to increase its shelf life from months to years is

Sodium benzoate

Butylated hydroxy anisole

Sulphur dioxide

All of these

Answer: B (Butylated hydroxy anisole)

Q. Which is not true for a detergent molecule?

It has non polar organic part and a polar group.

It is not easily biodegraded.

It is sodium salt of fatty acid.

It is a surface active reagent.

Answer: C (It is sodium salt of fatty acid)

Q. The most useful classification of drugs for medicinal chemists is

On the basis of chemical structure

On the basis of drug action

On the basis of molecular targets

On the basis of pharmacological effect

Answer: C (On basis of molecular targets)

Q. Glycerol is added to soap. It functions

As a filter

To increase lathering

To prevent rapid drying

To make soap granules

Answer: C (To prevent rapid drying)

Q. The compound that causes general antidepressant action on the central nervous system belongs to the class of

Analgesics

Tranquilizers

Narcotic analgesics

Antihistamines

Answer:  B (Tranquilizers)

Q. Which of the following is a narcotic analgesic?

Ibuprofen

Aspirin

Paracetamol

Morphine

Answer: D (Morphine)

Q. Salol is an

Antipyretic

Analgesics

Antiseptic

Antibiotic

Answer: C (Antiseptic)

Q. The reaction of fat and sodium hydroxide is known as

Dehydration

Hydrogenation

Saponification

Esterification

Answer: C (Saponification)

Q. An ester which is used as medicine

Ethyl acetate

Methyl acetate

Methyl salicylate

Ethyl benzoate

Answer: C (Methyl salicylate)

Q. Which of the following destroys antigens?

Insulin

Antibodies

Chromoprotein

Phosphoprotein

Answer: B (Antibodies)

Q. Which one is broad spectrum antibiotic?

Chloramphenicol

Plasmoquin

Xylocaine

Antiseptic

Answer: A (Chloramphenicol)